One thought on “1 Corinthians 5:5”

  1. At 3:23 PM -0600 2/21/97, T & J Peterson wrote:
    >The handing over to Satan has enough of its own problems, and I would
    >appreciate comment on that aspect, but my real concern is with the hINA
    >clause. Does it necessarily identify the salvation of the spirit as
    >contingent upon the act of handing over? Or, to put it another way,
    >does the action of the assembly in disciplining the sinner directly
    >affect his salvation? Also, how does the hINA clause relate to the EIS
    >phrase that precedes it?
    This strange little formula–and I can never look at it without stopping
    and shuddering at the way it’s been used in Toledo by Torqemada, probably
    even by Calvin against Michael Servetus–is as close to unfathomable as
    anything in the entire Biblical corpus (although I could suggest some close
    seconds)–is apparently a formula of excommunication. I take it that the
    “delivering to Satan” referred to by PARADOUNAI means fundamentally
    dismissing the person in question from the congregation and its circle of
    divine “protection” in accordance with the formulae elsewhere indicated in
    Mt 16, Mt 18, Jn 20 etc. where we are told in slightly different terms that
    the decision of the earthly authority will be ratified in heaven. I would
    not imagine that the community itself takes any part in the OLEQROS THS
    SARKOS beyond the dreadful step of abandoning the excommunicate in hopes
    that, as he labors under the curse, he may come to his senses and repent
    and be forgiven. Grammatically, at any rate, I would understand that the
    erstwhile believer, henceforth a profaned exile, is subject to Satan’s
    power to destroy him. How then does the possibility of salvation enter in?
    My guess (nothing more than that) is that it is the extremity of this
    action that is itself to arouse the sinner to the peril in which he now
    stands; only that awakening may make it possible for him to be saved. OR:
    surely there can be nothing automatic about this “deliverance to Satan for
    the destruction of the evil self (SARX)” triggering salvation, I wouldn’t
    There are a couple possible paralles that might illuminate this passage a bit.
    (1) One is the 3x repetition of PAREDWKEN in Romans 1, where Paul speaks of
    God’s abandoning humanity to suffer the consequences of its failure to
    acknowledge Him as creator; humanity, consequently, is “God-forsaken” and
    one might well assert that it is COMPLETELY “given over to, surrendered to”
    Satan. The only way out is recognition that this is one’s condition, and
    consequent repentance. It would seem to me that this is what the
    excommunication and the surrender of the ex-member to Satan is intended to
    accomplish–not an automatic salvation, but rather the only conceivable
    hope of his salvation.
    (2) The other interesting parallel is in Luke’s gospel; at the end of the
    Temptation narrative, we are told (Lk 4:13), KAI SUNTELESAS PANTA PEIRASMON
    hO DIABOLOS APESTH AP’ AUTOU ACRI KAIROU–Jesus is free from Satan’s power
    during the period now beginning–UNTIL A SUITABLE TIME. That time arrives
    at the outset of the Passion Narrative (Lk 22:3), EISHLQEN DE SATANAS EIS
    IOUDAN …, the significance of which becomes clear in Jesus’ words to the
    arresting authorities (Lk 22:53), ALL’ hAUTH ESTIN hUMWN hH hWRA KAI hH
    EXOUSIA TOU SKOTOUS. Luke seems to understand Jesus at this moment as
    “handed over to Satan for the destruction of his flesh.” It is no human
    action that reverses the destruction but God’s power that raises Jesus from
    the dead. If this illuminates the passage in 1 Cor, then perhaps it means
    that the only hope for the salvation of the spirit of the unrepentant
    sinner rests with God himself.
    Carl W. Conrad
    Department of Classics, Washington University
    One Brookings Drive, St. Louis, MO, USA 63130
    (314) 935-4018


    Ronald Wong wrote:
    > you quote in the middle of Paul’s thought….verse five is actually the
    > resumption of v 3. (HDH KEKRIKA).
    > the hINA clause is purpose….purpose of what? well…”ALREADY I have
    > judged. . . ) v.3.
    But what is that judgment? Granted, v. 4 is parenthetical, whereby we
    have Paul saying HDH KEKRIKA . . . PARADOUNAI TON TOIOUTON . . . . So,
    if the judgment was to hand this one over to Satan, and if the purpose
    of the judgment was that his spirit might be saved, then that purpose
    naturally carries over to the form the judgment took. Does anyone have
    a way of viewing this passage that would not end up at that conclusion?
    > I don’t believe it is Paul’s intention to say that delivering one to
    > Satan is the salvation of TOV TOIOUTON. (I could be wrong….) But
    > that Paul was saying that the intention of the judgement is hINV TO
    > could the action of the assembly in disciplining the sinner directly
    > affect his salvation? hm…I don’t think you could find this supported
    > in the NT. I could be wrong…
    Which is what I’m trying to discern. Even if we take the purpose of the
    judgment, your question doesn’t change much. Could the action of Paul
    (who clearly says that he made this judgment in anticipated congruence
    with the assembly) or of the assembly in judging or disciplining the
    sinner directly affect his salvation? I don’t think you could find it
    supported in the NT either, but what then does he mean? If hINA
    introduces his purpose, then how does the act of judging or handing over
    to Satan further that purpose?


    A brief footnote:
    The introductory section to Chapt 8 (“Prepositions”) of Mounce’s _Basic
    of Biblical Greek_ contains a brief, but very informative discussion of
    exactly this topic.
    (For those unfamilar with Mounce’s book, he begins each chapter with a
    page-long “Exegetical Insight” to illustrate and motivate the material to
    be covered in that chapter. The section mentioned above is written by
    Craig L. Blomberg.)
    Nichael Cramer

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