I think this is indirect, but can be read from the context.I understand the assertion in Hebrews 4:15 that the intended readers of Hebrews have a High Priest who was πεπειρασμένον δὲ κατὰ πάντα καθ’ ὁμοιότητα .. . as having a specific temporal reference and is conveying the idea that in Jesus the readers of Hebrews have ""one who has been tested in all the ways in which we are being tested NOW" (i.e. at the time the author of Hebrews is writing to his audience). Am I correct to think so?
οὐ γὰρ ἔχομεν ἀρχιερέα μὴ δυνάμενον συμπαθῆσαι ταῖς ἀσθενείαις ἡμῶν. We don't have a high priest who us unable to sympathize with our weakness. When do we have that weakness? Now.οὐ γὰρ ἔχομεν ἀρχιερέα μὴ δυνάμενον συμπαθῆσαι ταῖς ἀσθενείαις ἡμῶν, πεπειρασμένον δὲ κατὰ πάντα καθ᾽ ὁμοιότητα χωρὶς ἁμαρτίας.
[ἔχομεν δὲ ἀρχιερέα] πεπειρασμένον δὲ κατὰ πάντα καθ᾽ ὁμοιότητα χωρὶς ἁμαρτίας
Instead, we have a high priest who has been tempted/tested in all things in the same way without sin. So with respect to the time of writing, our high priest has already been tempted/tested. And we have such a high priest now, at the time of writing. And we have weaknesses that he can sympathize with, now, at the time of writing.
I think those are the temporal relationships that I would feel confident in. Am I missing some?
Statistics: Posted by Jonathan Robie — October 21st, 2022, 11:05 am