New Testament • Re: the import of κεκοινώνηκεν in Hebrews 2:14

I think it begs the question to assume, as you do, that the expression αἵματος καὶ σαρκός meant the same thing that σὰρξ καὶ αἵμα did at the time of the writing of Hebrews. And you seem to be saying that the author of Hebrews believed that what destroys the power of the adversary is taking on human nature, not to mention that the death of his readers was what would do so.

In any case, wouldn't it be odd for the author of Hebrews to make his claim that Jesus was not ashamed to call the readers of Hebrews his brothers if what he was not ashamed of was being human, especially since it is never said in the Epistle, not to mention never thought in the culture in which the author and readers of Hebrews lived and moved and had their being that being human was what it was that brings shame upon a person or a group?

Besides that, I don't think that what the author of Hebrews was saying was that Jesus' death was the result of being human or that because of his being human he was destined to die at some point in time.

More importantly, you haven't said anything that actually addresses my question about what the action that the use of the particular form of the verb κοινωνέω that is used in Heb. 2:14 is.


Statistics: Posted by jgibson000 — October 21st, 2022, 12:12 pm

People who read this article also liked: