I hope I’m not breaking any rules by reopening a thread that has been dormant for six months. I just noticed that Joachim Jeremias gives his own answer to your specific question, citing chapter and verse, on p. 9 of his book New Testament Theology (li…
πνεῦμα ὁ θεός isn’t weird at all, it’s simple, typical Greek. Joel quotes a similar exaple from Isocrates, which more literally could be translated ”chance is common and the future is unseen”. πνεῦμα ὁ θεός ”God is (a) spirit”θεός τὸ πνεῦμα ”(the) spi…
I think Vers 15:11 and 19 make it clear:οτι ηγνοησεν τον πλασαντα αυτον και τον εμπνευσαντα αυτω ψυχην ενεργουσαν και εμφυσαντα πνευμα ζωτικονbecause he did not know the one who molded him and infused him with an active soul and breathed into him a li…
I see we have ἀλλ’ ἢ not only in 4 but already in 2, and it’s well attested in the Septuagint. It’s an oddity—seemingly no different from simple ἀλλά in sense, though it’s sometimes said to be “stronger.” I think there may well have been some sort of …
Maybe the reason for the passive translation is, that the evil will probably not volontarely get out of the way, but must be removed (by whom-/whatsover).Even mr Bill Mounce has questions regarding this text (https://www.billmounce.com/path/should-be-…
Yes but it’s the ἀλλ’ἤ combo—quite illogical on its face—that stands in need of explanation. Whatever its origin I think it just has to be accepted as a linguistic quirk.Statistics: Posted by mwh — Thu May 16, 2024 7:26 pm
Plate #1 of the sayings collection can be seen here. I’ll try to put up a bad transcription of the Greek from this first image at some point. I would have liked to have been able to order Oxyrhynchus Papyri vol. LXXXVII and have seen the whole thing, …
Ah you’re right, sorry. Not enough caffeine this morning :-PStatistics: Posted by Mitch — Sat May 18, 2024 4:01 pm
Thanks for the lengthy explanation. Merry Christmas!Statistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Sun Dec 24, 2023 5:36 pm
Ah, I missed that in verse 2, thanks. But again the ἢ may have been included there to signal a comparison between the two behaviors described in verses 1 and 2. The reason I’m bringing this up is because I just finished reading Chapter 32 Comparison o…
Sorry for not being clearer, I wasn’t interested in how the Greek here is translated from the Hebrew, I just wanted to know more about the kind of grammatical constrction used in the sentence. And I just found theanswer: it’s a “causal clause” as desc…
If you’re wondering why the accents are different in this case, my understanding is that it’s because of how the endings were derived. τοῦ and τούς are like second declension nouns and adjectives which are accented on the last syllable, e.g. ἀγρός.In …
That’s the way Luther understood an translated it.Statistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Fri Oct 06, 2023 4:35 am
Sorry Mitch this is not my field at all, and I can’t control the Hebrew. What’s particularly odd in the Greek is the feminine αὕτη. I see that this echoes 50, αὕτη με παρεκάλεσεν ἐν τῇ ταπεινώσει μου, ὅτι τὸ λόγιόν σου ἔζησέ με. I also see that the la…
Hatch-Redpath suggests that they are, while Liddell & Scott suggests that they are not (both links below). In one case we find a single entry covering both words together, in the other case two separate brief entries explaining the words as respec…
I think Vers 15:11 and 19 make it clear:οτι ηγνοησεν τον πλασαντα αυτον και τον εμπνευσαντα αυτω ψυχην ενεργουσαν και εμφυσαντα πνευμα ζωτικονbecause he did not know the one who molded him and infused him with an active soul and breathed into him a li…
Having looked at the Tauchnitz New Testament that MacDonald mentions, I think that one possibility is that he means Matthew 17:21 and Mark 9:29. Matthew 17:21: “Howbeit this kind goeth not out but by prayer and fasting.”The apparatus lists S*V as omit…
Does Mark’s use of the Latin word denarius necessarily mean that he was referring to a coin in that exact value? Couldn’t he perhaps have simply been referring to a drachma, but giving it the name of a Latin near-equivalent to convey his meaning more …
I think that the reader is probably supposed to understand the imagined event as a type spoken persuasion. But all the Greek says is that the beast “will make them so they’ll get put to death”. It’s not precise. Did the author imagine the beast orderi…
Is πνεῦμα the subject or the object of ἐπιποθεῖ?There are several difficulties in this verse that have left me bewildered, but finding a definitive answer to this basic question about the syntax, if such a thing is possible, would help considerably to…