What you say is confusing, at least to me. The OP talks about “present participle”, but the only present participle in the sentence has nothing to do with time of the testing. And you say “second temporal sphere…” What second temporal sphere? Then y…
Perfect participles are practically adjectival, here describing the state that they are currently in, rooted and grounded (and proof that mixed metaphors are biblical).Well said. Especially since they’re middle!Statistics: Posted by MAubrey — August 2…
I read the original post and saw nothing objectionable in what was being proposed. I read it again to see if I missed something. I waited and read it 14hrs later. I still see nothing objectionable. The second temporal sphere is implied not expressed. …
I’ve been pondering Gal 3:3 in connection with all the other flesh phrases of Galatians for two years since the above conversation. I’m still exploring this possibility:νῦν σαρκὶ in 3:3 (ἐναρξάμενοι Πνεύματι νῦν σαρκὶ ἐπιτελεῖσθε) has the same positiv…
Gregory,I have to wonder what is making you push this. It is without-a-doubt not the meaning of the expression. It just means “human” – a person that is alive in a body and is not some sort of phantom or ghost. What is your purpose in trying to bend t…
I think it begs the question to assume, as you do, that the expression αἵματος καὶ σαρκός meant the same thing that σὰρξ καὶ αἵμα did at the time of the writing of Hebrews. And you seem to be saying that the author of Hebrews believed that what des…
More importantly, you haven’t said anything that actually addresses my question about what the action that the use of the particular form of the verb κοινωνέω that is used in Heb. 2:14 is.I thought I had, actually. And I started my thought process b…
Composition based on ancient texts • Re: Compositions based on the verb ἀρέσκειν. Posted: 10 Nov 2016 06:40 AM PST Interesting query. I find particularly interesting the judgment expressed in BDAG “a favored term in the reciprocity-conscious Mediterranean world, and frequently used in honorary documents to express interest in accommodating others by meeting their…
To me, the perfect implies a change of state, and the nature of that change of state depends on the lexical semantics of the verb. I hadn’t looked this up when I wrote that, but here’s the semantics BDAG gives to this verb:τινός in someth. (X., Rep. L…
Yea, that is pretty much the way I understand it, especially since ἀνέγκλητος is masculine. It seems to me that Young is being too literal here.Ἀνέγκλητος, -ον “without reproach, blameless” is a two-termination adjective. It is expressly not exclusive…
Gentlemen, I really appreciate your help on this. Thank you.Statistics: Posted by grogers — January 10th, 2023, 10:55 am
I’ve been pondering Gal 3:3 in connection with all the other flesh phrases of Galatians for two years since the above conversation. I’m still exploring this possibility:νῦν σαρκὶ in 3:3 (ἐναρξάμενοι Πνεύματι νῦν σαρκὶ ἐπιτελεῖσθε) has the same positiv…
DIA FOR AFTER: WHEN? Ward Powers bwpowers at eagles.com.au Mon Sep 27 21:42:55 EDT 1999 Is TEMPUS A Part of Greek Grammar? DIA FOR AFTER: WHEN? B-greekers:Yesterday my Greek class was looking at Galatians and comparing 1:18 with 2:1.In my introduction to the Epistle I had briefed them about the provenanceof this letter, including the…
While I’m not sure that I would make an imperative participle its own category (I would prefer to call it a contextual usage), I note that in most of these instances these participles have been read as imperatival by translators all the way back to th…
For visibility, I ended up posting a little longer version of the above (with a couple more examples and some additional editions compared) on my blog (with a link back here) in case someone stumbles across it in the future: Would the real 1904/1912 P…
John 4:34 reads: “….Ἐμὸν βρῶμά ἐστιν ἵνα ποιῶ τὸ θέλημα τοῦ πέμψαντός με καὶ τελειώσω αὐτοῦ τὸ ἔργον.Are you certain ἐστιν ἵνα + finite verb is always a purpose clause?1Cor. 4:3 ἐμοὶ δὲ εἰς ἐλάχιστόν ἐστιν ἵνα ὑφ᾿ ὑμῶν ἀνακριθῶ ἢ ὑπὸ ἀνθρωπίνης ἡμέρα…
UBS Translation commentary: “This verse begins with if any man (better “if anyone”). It makes no sense to translate the Greek literally here, since what comes out is somewhat ungrammatical, if not unclear, as RSV shows. In fact what the text seems to …
In Titus 1:6, we see the phrase εἴ τίς ἐστιν. In many translations τίς is rendered as ‘man’ or’ elder’. Since τίς is an indefinite, what is the justification for rendering this in the masculine rather than as ‘anyone’ as the ESV or Young’s so render i…
Yea, that is pretty much the way I understand it, especially since ἀνέγκλητος is masculine. It seems to me that Young is being too literal here.Statistics: Posted by grogers — December 5th, 2022, 8:31 am
What you say is confusing, at least to me. The OP talks about “present participle”, but the only present participle in the sentence has nothing to do with time of the testing. And you say “second temporal sphere…” What second temporal sphere? Then y…