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Addition:why απ-αιτεω instead of αιτεω: the first you can’t refuse, the second you can.Statistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Mon Oct 09, 2023 6:10 pm

Thanks Jean, after checking it out on Archive.org it looks like volume 1 of the Analytical Concordance is what I’m looking for. But I can’t figure out what volume 2 is about, it just looks like an endless stream of phrases with xrefs but no headings–…

αὕτη ἐγενήθη μοι ὅτι τὰ δικαιώματά σου ἐξεζήτησαNETS translates this as:”This [note added: antecedent unclear] fell to me, because I sought your statues”But could it also be translated like this:”This fell to me, that I sought your statues” i.e. “This…

There is an instance in Psalm 138:6 in which ἀπὸ μακρόθεν matches the construction of the Hebrew ἀπὸ-μακρό-θεν/מ־מ־רחק. Does-θεν have the same function as -hinc?Psalm 138:6 ab longinquē cognōscit “He knows from a distance” ?Statistics: Posted by Sabo…

Question: Is there a concordance of the Greek New Testament that’s similar in style to the Hatch and Redpath Concordance of the Septuaguint? i.e. which lists in alphabetical order every Greek word (including stop words which Perseus doesn’t index) fou…

It helps to have a bit of context. But it seems to me most likely that βιάβα represents βιαία as I suggested, and τὸν πεπηγμένον the genitive plural. Then the requisite changes are minimal. ἀνάγκη is the obvious guess for ἀνάγγη but doesn’t account fo…

Question: Is there a concordance of the Greek New Testament that’s similar in style to the Hatch and Redpath Concordance of the Septuaguint? i.e. which lists in alphabetical order every Greek word (including stop words which Perseus doesn’t index) fou…

Hi everyone.Can someone help me with this sentence in Acts 8,19:δότε κἀμοὶ τὴν ἐξουσίαν ταύτην ἵνα ᾧ ἐὰν ἐπιθῶ τὰς χεῖρας λαμβάνῃ πνεῦμα ἅγιον.The official translation says: “Give me this power also, so that anyone on whom I lay my hands may receive t…

Brian, Yes φθόνος is perhaps invariably regarded as bad, and I don’t know if it’s ever attributed to God. In the famous “God is a jealous god” (Exod.20.5, Deut.4.24) the term used is ζηλωτής. In classical Greek, as in the NT, ζῆλος (as applied to huma…

Students of the New Testament have always been very well served. BAGD, a lexicon rather than a concordance, is good for any serious work. The abridged version (Gingrich-Danker) is handy and very serviceable: it conveniently sorts the NT refs, but (unl…

One of the main uses of ποιεῖν is to “cause” things to be in a certain state or to happen.If I take this at face value. None of these passages follow that rule: John 5:18; John 8:53; John 10:33; John 19:7, 12; 1 John 1:10; 1 John 5:10; https://www.bib…

Why not take ἀπαιτοῦσιν impersonally, like the λέγουσιν in Luke 20:41?Statistics: Posted by Vasile Stancu — Fri Oct 06, 2023 4:18 am

Zerwick was a Catholic (Jesuit).Statistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Tue Oct 24, 2023 5:06 pm

In legal Papyri-documents sometimes at the end appear sentences like:εγραψεν υπερ αυτου Διονυσιος … ο προγεγραμμενος δια το αυτον μη επιστασθαι γραμματα.(Dionysius, who has written the foregoing text,, has written for him, as he is illiterate; Tebtuni…

The physical coins themselves would seem to be their own witness, imo. And the NT is witness to the usage when it was written, slightly later than Jesus’ lifetime.But if only a papyrus will do, this is dated to “29 – 2 BC?”, for whatever the dating is…

The Septuagint’s occasional use of apparent indicative is a different phenomenon.And apparently here too, as Acts 7:7 turns the Septuagint’s ᾧ ἐὰν δουλεύσωσιν into indicative “δουλεύσουσιν”.Statistics: Posted by jeidsath — Mon Sep 30, 2024 11:25 pm
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Hi all, this is mind-boggling to me as well, but my first reaction was that this might be a gloss interpolation (i.e. textual corruption caused by someone copying into the main text a marginal note). A further bit of context I noted was that this sect…

Oh, it’s just spitballing. I suspect that others here could give other theories, and hopefully will.Statistics: Posted by jeidsath — Sun Dec 24, 2023 9:13 pm

Ah, I missed that in verse 2, thanks. But again the ἢ may have been included there to signal a comparison between the two behaviors described in verses 1 and 2. The reason I’m bringing this up is because I just finished reading Chapter 32 Comparison o…

Good question. You’ve nearly got it. αυτόν is not the object but the subject of γεννῆσαι. μετὰ τὸ γεννῆσαι αὐτὸν τὸν Σάλα is a prepositional phrase meaning “after he (αυτὸν) begot Sala.” τὸ is the neuter article, here accusative, governed by μετά “aft…