The Septuagint’s occasional use of apparent indicative is a different phenomenon.And apparently here too, as Acts 7:7 turns the Septuagint’s ᾧ ἐὰν δουλεύσωσιν into indicative “δουλεύσουσιν”.Statistics: Posted by jeidsath — Mon Sep 30, 2024 11:25 pm
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Hi all, this is mind-boggling to me as well, but my first reaction was that this might be a gloss interpolation (i.e. textual corruption caused by someone copying into the main text a marginal note). A further bit of context I noted was that this sect…
Oh, it’s just spitballing. I suspect that others here could give other theories, and hopefully will.Statistics: Posted by jeidsath — Sun Dec 24, 2023 9:13 pm
Ah, I missed that in verse 2, thanks. But again the ἢ may have been included there to signal a comparison between the two behaviors described in verses 1 and 2. The reason I’m bringing this up is because I just finished reading Chapter 32 Comparison o…
Good question. You’ve nearly got it. αυτόν is not the object but the subject of γεννῆσαι. μετὰ τὸ γεννῆσαι αὐτὸν τὸν Σάλα is a prepositional phrase meaning “after he (αυτὸν) begot Sala.” τὸ is the neuter article, here accusative, governed by μετά “aft…
αὕτη ἐγενήθη μοι ὅτι τὰ δικαιώματά σου ἐξεζήτησαNETS translates this as:”This [note added: antecedent unclear] fell to me, because I sought your statues”But could it also be translated like this:”This fell to me, that I sought your statues” i.e. “This…
No wonder you’re confused. It’s completely unintelligible as it stands, and the Greek must be very wrong. The best I can make of it is τῶν (not τὸν) πεπηγμένων (not -νον) ἐξ ἀνεδράστων(?) ἀναγωγὴ(?) βιαία(?) καὶ ἁρμονία σοφίας. That will mean somethin…
Ah, I missed that in verse 2, thanks. But again the ἢ may have been included there to signal a comparison between the two behaviors described in verses 1 and 2. The reason I’m bringing this up is because I just finished reading Chapter 32 Comparison o…
I had a very similar thought to mwh about its unintelligibility, and was casually trying to figure it out during the sermon at church this morning, having looked up the context on TLG just before. There appears to be a divine voice of some kind talkin…
I see we have ἀλλ’ ἢ not only in 4 but already in 2, and it’s well attested in the Septuagint. It’s an oddity—seemingly no different from simple ἀλλά in sense, though it’s sometimes said to be “stronger.” I think there may well have been some sort of …
And I wonder whether πρὸς φθόνον etc. is not after all to be taken as a putative scriptural quote, as everyone has been assuming, but as James’s own comment, with actual quotation coming only after the following διὸ λέγει. I really don’t know how plau…
Yes but it’s the ἀλλ’ἤ combo—quite illogical on its face—that stands in need of explanation. Whatever its origin I think it just has to be accepted as a linguistic quirk.Statistics: Posted by mwh — Thu May 16, 2024 7:26 pm
We mustn’t confuse the issues. There’s the εαν/αν spelling, and there’s the question of the semantics in various syntactic contexts. And there’s the question of textual corruption and “correction.” And the enquiry should not be limited to the NT, with…
The Greek parallel that comes to mind for me is: “καὶ κατὰ γῆν καὶ κατὰ θάλατταν”. But the double-καί is necessary there.I see that when quoting these verses, many of the Greek writers like to drop the second ἀνὰ μέσον.For example, the non-Semitic Jul…
Brian, Yes φθόνος is perhaps invariably regarded as bad, and I don’t know if it’s ever attributed to God. In the famous “God is a jealous god” (Exod.20.5, Deut.4.24) the term used is ζηλωτής. In classical Greek, as in the NT, ζῆλος (as applied to huma…
This sort of thing is anathema to me. And why do theologians have to be so very nasty to one another? But I’m trying to understand the syntax along with the sense, starting from ταύτης τοίνυν οὕτω συναιρομένης (6 lines up from end). There it looks to …
What Bible verse is George MacDonald talking about here? Mysterious passageShow“About two years ago,” said Polwarth, “a friend sent me Tauchnitz’s edition of the English New Testament, which has the different readings of the three oldest known manuscr…
…which makes me wonder if the repetition of οὐχ οὕτως in Psalm 1:4 is perhaps another way of expressing an emphatic negative in Greek? In other words, maybe ἀλλ’ ἢ only means “but rather / but instead” when it is immediately preceeded by an emphatic…
The Greek parallel that comes to mind for me is: “καὶ κατὰ γῆν καὶ κατὰ θάλατταν”. But the double-καί is necessary there.I see that when quoting these verses, many of the Greek writers like to drop the second ἀνὰ μέσον.For example, the non-Semitic Jul…
Sorry, I can’t get the “Image” thing to display properly. Here’s the link:https://www.artic.edu/artworks/142244/t … r-tiberiusStatistics: Posted by BrianB — Sat May 04, 2024 1:51 pm