The Greek parallel that comes to mind for me is: “καὶ κατὰ γῆν καὶ κατὰ θάλατταν”. But the double-καί is necessary there.I see that when quoting these verses, many of the Greek writers like to drop the second ἀνὰ μέσον.For example, the non-Semitic Jul…
I had a very similar thought to mwh about its unintelligibility, and was casually trying to figure it out during the sermon at church this morning, having looked up the context on TLG just before. There appears to be a divine voice of some kind talkin…
Does this fit with the context at all? I’ve never come across this text, which looks pretty weird. Christian mysticism?Yes, sort of, its a so-called AAA – apocryphal acts of the apostles with “John” as the main character. With much dualism/mysticism g…
The Septuagint’s occasional use of apparent indicative is a different phenomenon.And apparently here too, as Acts 7:7 turns the Septuagint’s ᾧ ἐὰν δουλεύσωσιν into indicative “δουλεύσουσιν”.Statistics: Posted by jeidsath — Mon Sep 30, 2024 11:25 pm
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Hi Michael yes I also have BAGD on my bookshelf and consult it from time to time. Having read through Mark and Matthew in the GNT I’m now slowly working through Psalms in the LXX and when I hit an unfamiliar word I check different lexicons in the foll…
Might also simply be ungrammatical Greek e.g. the translator seems to be rigidly following the word order of the Hebrew here, see https://biblehub.com/interlinear/psalms/18-40.htmStatistics: Posted by Mitch — Sat Feb 01, 2025 5:41 pm
Yeah, I had a post written up about the earlier πεπηγμένος, but happily Chad’s post covered it first.I can get closer to the spelling, if you’d like.So αναγκη βιαια – irresistible necessity – would be great, but you would have to imagine a dropped ver…
καὶ τοὺς ἐχθρούς μου ἔδωκάς μοι νῶτον καὶ τοὺς μισοῦντάς με ἐξωλόθρευσας. -Ps. 17.41Here ἔδωκάς seems to take two accusative objects (ἐχθρούς, νῶτον) along with the dative indirect object (μοι) . How should this be understood?Statistics: Posted by C…
Ah you’re right, sorry. Not enough caffeine this morning :-PStatistics: Posted by Mitch — Sat May 18, 2024 4:01 pm
καὶ τοὺς ἐχθρούς μου ἔδωκάς μοι νῶτον καὶ τοὺς μισοῦντάς με ἐξωλόθρευσας. -Ps. 17.41Here ἔδωκάς seems to take two accusative objects (ἐχθρούς, νῶτον) along with the dative indirect object (μοι) . How should this be understood?Statistics: Posted by C…
It’s a prepositional phrase. τῷ κατακυριεῦσαι is an articular infinitive, and αυτον is the subject of the infinitive. So: “when (εν τω temporal) he (αυτον) gets dominion over the poor (κατακυριεῦσαι τῶν πενήτων).” All clear now?Statistics: Posted by m…
I am so confused about this sentence in Acts of John 98: καὶ τὸν πεπηγμένον ἐξ ἀνεδράστων ἀνάγγη βιάβα καὶ ἁρμονία σοφίας·so, ἀνάγγη, is the verb (aor.pass.ind.) and βιάβα might be predicative to the implicit subject of ἀνάγγη. What I don’t get is τὸν…
Does this fit with the context at all? I’ve never come across this text, which looks pretty weird. Christian mysticism?Yes, sort of, its a so-called AAA – apocryphal acts of the apostles with “John” as the main character. With much dualism/mysticism g…
I am glad that it – which is uncommon – is really the text that is the problem and not the interpreter :-)I will try to joggle a bit more. And does not help that both the content and the grammar is obscure!Statistics: Posted by Hortensius — Mon Oct 21…
I thought that this might just be something to do with the poetry here, and looked at how ἀλλ’ ἤ gets used elsewhere. A quick scan through Genesis and the early books of the LXX shows it mostly being used in the “standard” way, to mean “unless” or “ex…
Is that the only instance, where the Greek απο μακροθεν exactly fits to the Hebrew text?Statistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Sat Apr 13, 2024 12:11 pm
Statistics: Posted by jeidsath — Wed Nov 13, 2024 1:34 am
Hi Joel, I don’t have a facsimile of the manuscript itself, but maybe it’s online: if anyone wanted to track it down, the 1983 critical edition describes manuscript C as sitting in the National Library of Austria, ref. ‘hist. gr. 63’, dated 1319, on p…
Yes but it’s the ἀλλ’ἤ combo—quite illogical on its face—that stands in need of explanation. Whatever its origin I think it just has to be accepted as a linguistic quirk.Statistics: Posted by mwh — Thu May 16, 2024 7:26 pm
φθονεῖτε καὶ ζηλοῦτε in 2 seems clearly right to me. (And then the φθόνος in 5 is all the less likely to be God’s.)Statistics: Posted by mwh — Fri Jul 12, 2024 5:07 pm