σὺ εἶ ὁ υἱός μου ὁ ἀγαπητός, ἐν σοὶ εὐδόκησα.The aorist here is usually translated as a present i.e. “I am well-pleased” and I’m trying to understand why. Chapter 33 of CGCG says that aorist indicative in narrative texts is used to present the occurre…
Is that the only instance, where the Greek απο μακροθεν exactly fits to the Hebrew text?Statistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Sat Apr 13, 2024 12:11 pm
vol 2 the Grammatical Focus is a peculiar lexiconsuppose you want to find all Nouns Fem.Acc.Plur. look at page XII Abbreviations and Symbols (archive.org scan page 18) you see N F A P.Look at the right page (uneaven pages) at the top right, you will f…
Brian, Yes φθόνος is perhaps invariably regarded as bad, and I don’t know if it’s ever attributed to God. In the famous “God is a jealous god” (Exod.20.5, Deut.4.24) the term used is ζηλωτής. In classical Greek, as in the NT, ζῆλος (as applied to huma…
Ah, I missed that in verse 2, thanks. But again the ἢ may have been included there to signal a comparison between the two behaviors described in verses 1 and 2. The reason I’m bringing this up is because I just finished reading Chapter 32 Comparison o…
Thank you indeed for this. :-)One of the problems all language learners face is trying to fit strange constructions into our mental framework of how a language “should” work. Infinitives that take accusatives as subjects rather than objects is definit…
[Posted independently of Michael, whose post I will read in a moment.]Note: ὑπέδυς is 2nd personμηδ᾽ αἱρουμένης ποιεῖν ἑαυτῇ φίλους ἐκ τοῦ μαμωνᾶ τούτου τῆς ἀδικίαςnor choosing to make for herself friends using this mammon of unrighteousnessτοὺς ὅταν …
οτι is not originally present in Sinaiticus, but is added as a correction up above the line (in 56).Both verses in Hebrew start out with the feminine demonstrative, and the Greek seem to be keeping the gender for that reason. Robert Alter translates 5…
Statistics: Posted by jeidsath — Wed Nov 13, 2024 1:34 am
Yes, thank you sirs.Statistics: Posted by CMatthiasT88 — Fri Jan 31, 2025 6:23 pm
The Septuagint’s occasional use of apparent indicative is a different phenomenon.And apparently here too, as Acts 7:7 turns the Septuagint’s ᾧ ἐὰν δουλεύσωσιν into indicative “δουλεύσουσιν”.Statistics: Posted by jeidsath — Mon Sep 30, 2024 11:25 pm
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Brian, Yes φθόνος is perhaps invariably regarded as bad, and I don’t know if it’s ever attributed to God. In the famous “God is a jealous god” (Exod.20.5, Deut.4.24) the term used is ζηλωτής. In classical Greek, as in the NT, ζῆλος (as applied to huma…
Does this fit with the context at all? I’ve never come across this text, which looks pretty weird. Christian mysticism?Yes, sort of, its a so-called AAA – apocryphal acts of the apostles with “John” as the main character. With much dualism/mysticism g…
Brian, Yes φθόνος is perhaps invariably regarded as bad, and I don’t know if it’s ever attributed to God. In the famous “God is a jealous god” (Exod.20.5, Deut.4.24) the term used is ζηλωτής. In classical Greek, as in the NT, ζῆλος (as applied to huma…
Even clearer would be Ecclesiastes 12:7, or Job 1:21: “καὶ τὸ πνεῦμα ἐπιστρέψῃ πρὸς τὸν θεόν, ὃς ἔδωκεν αὐτό”, or “αὐτὸς γυμνὸς ἐξῆλθον ἐκ κοιλίας μητρός μου, γυμνὸς καὶ ἀπελεύσομαι ἐκεῖ· ὁ κύριος ἔδωκεν, ὁ κύριος ἀφείλατο.” But God’s ultimate agency …
The relatively contemporary itala and Vulgate as well as the Gothic translated this aorist with a perfect (conplacui(t); sensi; genui) resp. a preterite (≈imperfect) galeikaida (A.pret.Ind.Sg.1 = i liked, began to like). In their opinion it seems this…
καὶ τὸν πεπηγμένον ἐξ ἀνεδράστων ἀνάγει ἡ γῆ βεβαία καὶ ἁρμονία σοφίαςAnd the solid ground and jointure/”harmony” of wisdom uplifts the affixed [cross of light] from unstable [things; perhaps the list that follows].Statistics: Posted by jeidsath — Tue…
…which makes me wonder if the repetition of οὐχ οὕτως in Psalm 1:4 is perhaps another way of expressing an emphatic negative in Greek? In other words, maybe ἀλλ’ ἢ only means “but rather / but instead” when it is immediately preceeded by an emphatic…
Joel has tried to explain this to you patiently and so have I, although perhaps not so patiently. You look at what you call ”Scripture” (for me it’s just an old text) as if it were a puzzle that can be forced to mean anything you want by assembling th…
This sort of thing is anathema to me. And why do theologians have to be so very nasty to one another? But I’m trying to understand the syntax along with the sense, starting from ταύτης τοίνυν οὕτω συναιρομένης (6 lines up from end). There it looks to …