In Job 9:9 the idea has already occurred as ταμιεῖα νότου, “chamber of the south/south-wind”. As this southern “chamber” is not a Greek ideaWell there is ἕδρα (hédra) cf. חדר ἕδρα (LSJ)sitting place, seat, chair, in pl, quarters of the sky in which o…
You have two examples of the “but instead” meaning in the Psalm quote. I would say that neither appear to use an emphatic negative. And my post was an argument for *not* reading Luke 12:51 with this “but instead” translation. I suggest looking through…
Yes I figured that that’s what had thrown you, the use of ἐάν for ἄν. It’s actually very common in post-classical texts. If you find ἐάν after a clause-initial relative such as ὅς or ὅστις (or ᾧ in this instance), that’s what it will be, not ἐάν “if.”…
@katalogon – Thanks for the article about performatives and tragic aorist. CGCG briefly discusses use of present tense (sec. 33.12n1) and aorist tense (sec. 33.33) in performatives and I think that’s probably what’s happening in this passage i.e. aori…
New Testament Grammars have very little justification to exist outside of a religious belief that this collection of books of fairly varied language and style and authorship has some sort of grammatical unity imposed by God. This is not an idea that m…
…which makes me wonder if the repetition of οὐχ οὕτως in Psalm 1:4 is perhaps another way of expressing an emphatic negative in Greek? In other words, maybe ἀλλ’ ἢ only means “but rather / but instead” when it is immediately preceeded by an emphatic…
No wonder you’re confused. It’s completely unintelligible as it stands, and the Greek must be very wrong. The best I can make of it is τῶν (not τὸν) πεπηγμένων (not -νον) ἐξ ἀνεδράστων(?) ἀναγωγὴ(?) βιαία(?) καὶ ἁρμονία σοφίας. That will mean somethin…
Hi Jean, I think then I’ll skip volume 2 then as I’ve found CGCG *very* helpful in learning endings and other morphology e.g. one doesn’t have to memorize all the weird exceptions if one simply learns the various phonological changes that occurred in …
ἀλλʼ ἤ seems to mean “but rather” in those verses. IMO, that would make ἤ here somewhat similar to the LSJ A.I.3 “or else, otherwise”, although not quite the same thing.How do the English bibles translate these verses?Statistics: Posted by jeidsath — …
Thanks for that. I need to have more thinking. Would you suggest that it could mean “force” the way some translations render it?I should clarify my argument; I’m not suggesting it is “more accurate” translation. It is prophetic language after all. I…
Hi All,I am new here having just joined today. I am working to acquire some facility in Koine Greek. I already have some facility with Hebrew and have just begun with Latin.I am working my through and greatly enjoying Genesis in the LXX and there is s…
The physical coins themselves would seem to be their own witness, imo. And the NT is witness to the usage when it was written, slightly later than Jesus’ lifetime.But if only a papyrus will do, this is dated to “29 – 2 BC?”, for whatever the dating is…
There are two Concordances:1: Philipp S. Clapp, Barbara Friberg, Timothy Friberg: Analytical Concordance of the Greek New Testament(https://www.abebooks.co.uk/servlet/Sear … ance&sts=t)2: H. Bachmann, w.a. slaby ; Computer Concordance to the Nov…
AdditionAlfred SchmollerHandkonkordanz zum griechischen Neuen Testament (14th ed 1968)https://www.abebooks.co.uk/servlet/Sear … danz&sts=tStatistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Sat Aug 17, 2024 2:19 pm
Hi, it might also be worth adding how this verb is treated in syntaxes of the NT. In Whitacre (2021), εὐδόκησα is specifically discussed in sec. 5.125: Global (Constative): Action Viewed as a Whole (the same verb taken from the Mark 1:11 quote). In su…
Here’s Polybius with an aorist of the same verb, taking a dative object. After laying out the main points of the treaty:Ταῦτα μὲν οὖν ὑπετυπώθη τότε κεφαλαιωδῶς περὶ τῶν διαλύσεων· ἔδει δὲ τούτοις πρῶτον μὲν εὐδοκῆσαι τοὺς Αἰτωλούς, μετὰ δὲ ταῦτα γίνε…
I had a very similar thought to mwh about its unintelligibility, and was casually trying to figure it out during the sermon at church this morning, having looked up the context on TLG just before. There appears to be a divine voice of some kind talkin…
I’m not qualified to comment on all of the uses of these, but I just wanted to comment on this one:I see that the image behind τύπτω for instance is very clear, about the hammering of a smith, or the minting of a coin. I’m not sure that this is correc…
Thank you indeed for this. :-)One of the problems all language learners face is trying to fit strange constructions into our mental framework of how a language “should” work. Infinitives that take accusatives as subjects rather than objects is definit…
Ah, I missed that in verse 2, thanks. But again the ἢ may have been included there to signal a comparison between the two behaviors described in verses 1 and 2. The reason I’m bringing this up is because I just finished reading Chapter 32 Comparison o…