John 1:1

New Testament • John 1:1 (In THE beginning)
Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος

This is always translated as “In the beginning”, but from the little I
understand of Greek grammar, one shouldn’t append the definite article in
English if the article is absent in Greek.

Is this “hyer-literal” translation accurate:

“In origin was the Word” … ologue.htm

ὅτι ἀπ᾽ ἀρχῆς ὁ διάβολος ἁμαρτάνει
“For the devil sins from the beginning.”

The devil has an article, in both Greek and English, but again, beginning
has none.

Apologies for a simplistic question, I’m only two words into the text and
I’m confused.
Can someone clear this up for me?
Danny Diskin

Statistics: Posted by Danny Diskin — April 14th, 2014, 10:40 pm