Here is Xenophon:ὥσπερ εἰ εἴποις ὅτι δεῖ γράμματα ἐπίστασθαι τὸν μέλλοντα δυνήσεσθαι τὰ ὑπαγορευόμενα γράφειν καὶ τὰ γεγραμμένα ἀναγιγνώσκειν.Not that it gets us very far. He needs to know his letters to be able to both γράφειν and ἀναγιγνώσκειν, but …
Many thanks Michael. It will never cease to amaze me how thoroughly horrible certain canonised individuals are in their writings… One would, perhaps naively, like to think that politeness would be a prerequisite for sainthood. Your comments are very…
“Taken out of the way” is passive and implies an external agent. ἕως ἐκ μέσου γένηται isn’t passive and does not imply anything about the agent. To me, it reads very literally, “until he is no longer in between”. Context would have to be used to estab…
I like Mitch’s explanation.It seems so. The sense of τοὺς ἐχθρούς μου ἔδωκάς μοι νῶτον would be: You made my enemies turn their back to me (=run away from me).Statistics: Posted by tico — Sun Feb 02, 2025 3:02 pm
Addition: Zerwick 1963 page 1-4 (“The use of the Plural”: https://archive.org/details/biblicalgre … 7/mode/2up. : To Borrow for 1 hour!)Statistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Tue Oct 24, 2023 3:45 pm
Thanks for that. I need to have more thinking. Would you suggest that it could mean “force” the way some translations render it?I should clarify my argument; I’m not suggesting it is “more accurate” translation. It is prophetic language after all. I…
Hi, it might also be worth adding how this verb is treated in syntaxes of the NT. In Whitacre (2021), εὐδόκησα is specifically discussed in sec. 5.125: Global (Constative): Action Viewed as a Whole (the same verb taken from the Mark 1:11 quote). In su…
I think Vers 15:11 and 19 make it clear:οτι ηγνοησεν τον πλασαντα αυτον και τον εμπνευσαντα αυτω ψυχην ενεργουσαν και εμφυσαντα πνευμα ζωτικονbecause he did not know the one who molded him and infused him with an active soul and breathed into him a li…
New Testament Grammars have very little justification to exist outside of a religious belief that this collection of books of fairly varied language and style and authorship has some sort of grammatical unity imposed by God. This is not an idea that m…
Isagoge may depend on how much you like Aristotle.The Suda is more of an encyclopedia, if that is what you are looking for. I would be surprised if there is no Latin translation. [EDIT: Ludolph Küster’s version (1705) has a Latin translation]Statistic…
His source, Billerbeck/Leberecht, for that “usual periphrasis” line relies on Luther’s unfortunate German translation to make its point:https://archive.org/details/kommentarzu … 0/mode/2upSo his argument as it stands doesn’t hold up.But I would agre…
Having read through a bit of the rest of the manuscript now, I think what we have is:ὃ δὲ ὄντως ἐστίν· αὐτὸς πρὸς αὐτὸν νοούμενος· καὶ εἰς ἡμᾶς λεγόμενος· διορισμὸς πάντων ἐστίν· καὶ <εἰς> τὸν πεπηγμένον ἐξ ἀνεδράστων ἀνάγκῃ διάβα· καὶ ἁρμονία σ…
φθονεῖτε καὶ ζηλοῦτε in 2 seems clearly right to me. (And then the φθόνος in 5 is all the less likely to be God’s.)Statistics: Posted by mwh — Fri Jul 12, 2024 5:07 pm
AdditionAlfred SchmollerHandkonkordanz zum griechischen Neuen Testament (14th ed 1968)https://www.abebooks.co.uk/servlet/Sear … danz&sts=tStatistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Sat Aug 17, 2024 2:19 pm
The fairly Pauline statements in Acts 26 are no doubt constructed from the letters (as in Acts the journeys of Paul are clearly creatively constructed by someone trying to give a narrative to the names and places mentioned). For Acts 26:29 in particul…
Students of the New Testament have always been very well served. BAGD, a lexicon rather than a concordance, is good for any serious work. The abridged version (Gingrich-Danker) is handy and very serviceable: it conveniently sorts the NT refs, but (unl…
@katalogon – Thanks for the article about performatives and tragic aorist. CGCG briefly discusses use of present tense (sec. 33.12n1) and aorist tense (sec. 33.33) in performatives and I think that’s probably what’s happening in this passage i.e. aori…
Thanks Joel. Interesting that the emphatic negative οὐχί is in both the 1 Ki and Lk examples (though not in Ps 1:4).Statistics: Posted by Mitch — Sat May 18, 2024 3:36 pm
…which makes me wonder if the repetition of οὐχ οὕτως in Psalm 1:4 is perhaps another way of expressing an emphatic negative in Greek? In other words, maybe ἀλλ’ ἢ only means “but rather / but instead” when it is immediately preceeded by an emphatic…
Statistics: Posted by jeidsath — Wed Nov 13, 2024 1:34 am