Addition: Zerwick 1963 page 1-4 (“The use of the Plural”: https://archive.org/details/biblicalgre … 7/mode/2up. : To Borrow for 1 hour!)Statistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Tue Oct 24, 2023 3:45 pm
Having looked at the Tauchnitz New Testament that MacDonald mentions, I think that one possibility is that he means Matthew 17:21 and Mark 9:29. Matthew 17:21: “Howbeit this kind goeth not out but by prayer and fasting.”The apparatus lists S*V as omit…
I think that the reader is probably supposed to understand the imagined event as a type spoken persuasion. But all the Greek says is that the beast “will make them so they’ll get put to death”. It’s not precise. Did the author imagine the beast orderi…
Maybe the reason for the passive translation is, that the evil will probably not volontarely get out of the way, but must be removed (by whom-/whatsover).Even mr Bill Mounce has questions regarding this text (https://www.billmounce.com/path/should-be-…
Fascinating, thanks Joel! Where can I find Chrysostom’s commentary on the Psalms in the original Greek?Statistics: Posted by Mitch — Sun Mar 24, 2024 4:28 pm
Here’s my translation of 2Th 2:1-12, with some notes. It makes a bit more sense to me now than the last time I looked at it. Hopefully it will make even more sense the next time I run across it, however many years from now. But who knows?Ἐρωτῶμεν δὲ ὑ…
Addition: Zerwick 1963 page 1-4 (“The use of the Plural”: https://archive.org/details/biblicalgre … 7/mode/2up. : To Borrow for 1 hour!)Statistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Tue Oct 24, 2023 3:45 pm
Pretty sure ὑμῶν ὁ from Matt 6:26 could fit in line 13 on the recto before οὐράνιος, so will be interesting to see if the latest Oxyrhynchus volume restores the lacunae.I now have a copy.In the notes they say that the letter before οὐράνιος cannot be …
Thanks for that. I need to have more thinking. Would you suggest that it could mean “force” the way some translations render it?I should clarify my argument; I’m not suggesting it is “more accurate” translation. It is prophetic language after all. I…
If of help, the DGE (supplementing LSJ) gives the following:1. s.v. 1 βᾶριςbarca egipcia, A.l.c., Hdt.2.41bis, 96, περιάγειν ἐν βάρισι περὶ τὸ Δέλτα Hdt.2.179, cf. PHib.100.13, PCair.Zen.l.c. (ambos III a.C.), de las barcas de los muertos y de Osiris,…
Well, yes. More specifically, in such documents I don’t think there’s any difference between επιστασθαι and ειδεναι. His “not knowing letters” just means he ’s illiterate, can neither read nor write. The two went together in the education system. They…
This post is question, but includes a lot of research. I’m calling all Greek nerds here… if anyone has any comments or suggestions for this list below, your (constructive) criticism is welcome. Let me begin… you don’t have to spend long in Greek b…
Well, we’ve gotten to “demand back” and an implied subject at least, I should be happy…Is the agent really specifically conceived of as God in the Wisdom verse? The τὸ τῆς ψυχῆς ἀπαιτηθεὶς χρέος is even more similar than Luke 12:20 to τὸ τέλος ὁ χρό…
The Greek parallel that comes to mind for me is: “καὶ κατὰ γῆν καὶ κατὰ θάλατταν”. But the double-καί is necessary there.I see that when quoting these verses, many of the Greek writers like to drop the second ἀνὰ μέσον.For example, the non-Semitic Jul…
It looks as if it came into NT from LXX, and didn’t spread much further. That wouldn’t be too remarkable would it?(SEG 31.983 has απο πρωιθεν, II/I BCE.)Statistics: Posted by mwh — Sun Apr 14, 2024 11:35 pm
Ἐκβάτανα is Persian, not Greek, and the various transliterations are attempts at representing the Persian. No need to bring in ἐκβαίνω/ἀποβαίνω at all.I am inclining towards ψυχομαντεῖον as the meaning behind Ἐκβάτανα and 𐤀𐤇𐤌𐤕𐤀 ( ̓Αχαιμενίδες?) since …
His source, Billerbeck/Leberecht, for that “usual periphrasis” line relies on Luther’s unfortunate German translation to make its point:https://archive.org/details/kommentarzu … 0/mode/2upSo his argument as it stands doesn’t hold up.But I would agre…
@mwhthanks for the attested απο πρωιθεν. I am surprised that the English translation (https://philipharland.com/greco-roman-a … -ii-i-bce/ ) of that instance has “previously” instead of “from the morning”.Indeed, the christian texts might very well …
The indefinitie Subject in Lk 12:20 is mentioned in Robertson 1934, Page 392 (https://archive.org/details/grammarofgr … 2/mode/2up) and in Debrunner-Blass-Funk 1961 Paragraph 130 Note (2) (https://archive.org/details/bdf-a-greek … 2/mode/2up).Stat…
αὕτη ἐγενήθη μοι ὅτι τὰ δικαιώματά σου ἐξεζήτησαNETS translates this as:”This [note added: antecedent unclear] fell to me, because I sought your statues”But could it also be translated like this:”This fell to me, that I sought your statues” i.e. “This…