Koine and Biblical and Medieval Greek • Re: τι εμοι/ημιν και συ
Judges:Hey! At Least “τι εμοι και σοι” is there …!Statistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Sun Dec 10, 2023 2:27 pm
Judges:Hey! At Least “τι εμοι και σοι” is there …!Statistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Sun Dec 10, 2023 2:27 pm
If you’re wondering why the accents are different in this case, my understanding is that it’s because of how the endings were derived. τοῦ and τούς are like second declension nouns and adjectives which are accented on the last syllable, e.g. ἀγρός.In …
It looks as if it came into NT from LXX, and didn’t spread much further. That wouldn’t be too remarkable would it?(SEG 31.983 has απο πρωιθεν, II/I BCE.)Statistics: Posted by mwh — Sun Apr 14, 2024 11:35 pm
Joel has tried to explain this to you patiently and so have I, although perhaps not so patiently. You look at what you call ”Scripture” (for me it’s just an old text) as if it were a puzzle that can be forced to mean anything you want by assembling th…
μακρόθεν doesn’t have a great deal of pre-LXX attestation, I notice.Mark’s ἀπὸ ἄνωθεν strikes me as pretty similar to ἐκ τοῦ ἄνωθεν. [Funnily enough, this very phrase struck me as odd the other day, on Holy Friday, when I was reading through passion a…
ἐπίσταμαι and ἐφίστημι are different, strange though it is. You may wish to check the first in your dictionary.I’ll take a look for any examples that seem to distinguish between reading and writing for ἐπίσταμαι, though I’d be pretty surprised to find…
The 16th line up. It has lines over ΠΝΑ and ΘΣ as before.In English I say, “water is wet and in water we become wet.” In Greek, “ὑγρὸν τὸ ὕδωρ καὶ ἐν ὕδατι ὑγραζόμεθα”. ὕδωρ is water when it’s the subject of a sentence and ὕδατι is water when it comes…
τῆς Μήδων πόλεωςΜήδων is genitive plural, “city of the Medes.” Not “Mede-city.”But why πόλεως and πόλει in the same line?cf. Herodotus 1.128 ἐν τῷ ἄστεϊ τῶν Μήδων. 2 Kings 17:6 ἐν Αλαε καὶ ἐν Αβωρ ποταμοῖς Γωζαν καὶ Ορη Μήδων in Habor iuxta fluvium Go…
One of the main uses of ποιεῖν is to “cause” things to be in a certain state or to happen.If I take this at face value. None of these passages follow that rule: John 5:18; John 8:53; John 10:33; John 19:7, 12; 1 John 1:10; 1 John 5:10; https://www.bib…
What Bible verse is George MacDonald talking about here? Mysterious passageShow“About two years ago,” said Polwarth, “a friend sent me Tauchnitz’s edition of the English New Testament, which has the different readings of the three oldest known manuscr…
οτι is not originally present in Sinaiticus, but is added as a correction up above the line (in 56).Both verses in Hebrew start out with the feminine demonstrative, and the Greek seem to be keeping the gender for that reason. Robert Alter translates 5…
The adverbial construction απο + adverb with suffix -θεν (απο μακροθεν, απο πριωθεν, απο εμπροσθεν etc.) occurs about 20 times in LXX; in the NT απο μακροθεν 12 times, once απο ανωθεν in Mk 15:38), and in some Churchfathers.In Homer (Iliad 12:205 a…
I think that the reader is probably supposed to understand the imagined event as a type spoken persuasion. But all the Greek says is that the beast “will make them so they’ll get put to death”. It’s not precise. Did the author imagine the beast orderi…
Well, yes. More specifically, in such documents I don’t think there’s any difference between επιστασθαι and ειδεναι. His “not knowing letters” just means he ’s illiterate, can neither read nor write. The two went together in the education system. They…
μακρόθεν doesn’t have a great deal of pre-LXX attestation, I notice.Mark’s ἀπὸ ἄνωθεν strikes me as pretty similar to ἐκ τοῦ ἄνωθεν. [Funnily enough, this very phrase struck me as odd the other day, on Holy Friday, when I was reading through passion a…
Interestingly, I looked at a few English translations of this verse, and they do use the “passive” (as in “implication of an agent”): New International VersionFor the secret power of lawlessness is already at work; but the one who now holds it back wi…
The Greek parallel that comes to mind for me is: “καὶ κατὰ γῆν καὶ κατὰ θάλατταν”. But the double-καί is necessary there.I see that when quoting these verses, many of the Greek writers like to drop the second ἀνὰ μέσον.For example, the non-Semitic Jul…
The ZIP-file is also available at:https://github.com/JeanLCP/NT-GREEK-MS-TRANSCRIPTIONSStatistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Thu Feb 08, 2024 9:15 am
In the LXX/Septuaginta one finds (examples just for Genesis and Exodus) a: [ανα μεσον + Gen.Sg.] (Ex. 26:10) b: [ανα μεσον + Gen.Pl.] ; (Ex. 22:10; 25:22; 26:28; 28:33; 36:32;Gen. 15:17; 31:37; 31:53; 42:23; 49:14c: [ανα μεσον + Gen. + Gen.] (Ex. 11:7…
Having looked at the Tauchnitz New Testament that MacDonald mentions, I think that one possibility is that he means Matthew 17:21 and Mark 9:29. Matthew 17:21: “Howbeit this kind goeth not out but by prayer and fasting.”The apparatus lists S*V as omit…