Roman 1:17

Roman 1:17

Roman 1:17 Chong-Hush Lo clo at Wed Jul 24 17:32:18 EDT 2002   Pronunciation Variation UK/US? Gal 6:2 and 6:5 – bearing burdens Roman 1:17ek pistews eis pistin kaqws gegraptai o de dikaios ek pistews zhsetai.ek pistews eis pistin is “From faith to faith” (KJV) or “ByFaith to faith”dikaios ek pistews zhsetai. Means The…

Romans 13:10

[] Rom. 13:10a A. J. Birch a_j_birch at Wed May 30 02:18:44 EDT 2007   [] A Sourcebook of Greek Texts for the Gospels [] Rom. 13:10a Rom. 13:10a: “hH AGAPH TWi PLHSION KAKON OUK ERGAZETAI.”Why “PLHSION”? I would have expected “PLHSIWi”. Is this a substantive use of the preposition, as opposed to the…

Romans 11:25

Rom 11:25 George Athas gathas at Tue Oct 23 09:20:17 EDT 2001   Hebrews 10:14 “Retained accusative”? (was: RE: instances of (accusative)objects in passive constructions) The latter portion of Rom 11:25 reads:hOTI PWRWSIS APO MEROUS TWi ISRAHL GEGONEN ACRIS hOU TO PLHRWMA TWN EQNWN EISELQHi.How ought this be translated? I’d like to focus particular…

Romans 4:1

A Better Translation Of Rom 4 1

A better translation of Rom 4:1? Paul D. Nitz pnitz at Tue Oct 23 07:20:30 EDT 2001 Hebrews 10:14 Hebrews 10:14 xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxROMANS 4:1″What then shall we say that Abraham,our forefather, discovered in thismatter?” (NIV)”What then shall we say? That we havefound Abraham (to be) our forefather(only) according to the flesh?” (LenskiCommentary)As you can see…

Romans 3:19

New Testament • Re: Parsing of  Rom 3:19 and ἵνα clause as complement

It seems agreed that we distinguish “semantics” and “(discourse) functions” of a word, and
we should not transfer the functions of the word derived from context to the semantics of the word.

In connection with ἱνα I would pose a hypothesis that
ἱνα introduces a non-indicative (modal) content
that is potential, contingent, etc in contrast to the content introduced by a ὁτι clase, which is actual.
That is the semantics of ἱνα. More than that, e.g. wish, intention, purpose, obligation, command, etc
is derived from context.

I think that this is the minimum that Sim proposes after all things that look like over-interpretation are filtered out.

To support this hypothesis, let me cite two more examples in additionn to the one already given.

(1) The original example,

εκηρυσσεν τον Ιησοῦν ὁτι οὗτος εστιν ὁ υἱοσς τοῦ θεοῦ.
He was proclaiming that Jesus is the son of God.
Και εξελθοντες εκηρυξαν ἱνα ὁτιμετανοῶσιν.
Going out, they preached that people should repent.

Here the ὁτι clause and the ὁτι clause correspond to each well.
The only difference seems that the one describes an indicative content, whereas
the other a non-indicative content. The more specific content is derived from the context and the
nature of the main verb.

LXX Exo 6:11.
εισελθε λαλησον Φαρθω βασιλεῖ Αιγυπτου ̔ινα εξαποστειλῃ τους υἱους Ισραελ εκ τῆς αυτοῦ.
KJV: Go in, speak unto Pharaho king of Egypt, that he let the children of Israel go out of his land.

Here ̔the ινα clause specifies the content of the request. To think about “a purposed result”
seems to be an over-interpretation.

(3) Num 21:5
και κατελαλει ὁ λαος προσ τον θοεν και κατα Μωυσῆ λεγοντες ἱνα τι εξͅγαγες ἡμας εξ Αιγυπτου..
The people spoke against God and against Moes, saying “Why did you bring out out of Egypt..”

[Similarly with 2Sa 19:12]

Here ̔the ινα clause introduces a direct question, meaning that Moses shouldn’t have done that,
which is a non-indicative content.

Let me present two verses from LXX as examples where the ̔the ινα clause is the content of speech.

If I apply this idea to Rom 3:19, I could obtain:

[With reference to ] what the law says to those in the law, it (= the law) speaks that every mouth
should be stopped and all the world should be guilty before God.

[ It is difficult to express the subtle nuance of Greek subjunctive in English. So, the use of “should” should
be simply taken to indicate that it is a pointer fo the subjunctive verb in Greek. ]

Here I took ὁσα ὁ νομος λεγει τοῖς εν τῷ νομῳ to be an instance of the accusative of reference.

A similar construction is found in Rom 10:5:

Μωυσῆ γαρ γραφει την δικαιοσυνην την εκ τοῦ νομου ὁτι ὁ ποιησας αυτα ανθρωποσ ζησεται εν αυτοις.
Moses writes with reference to the righteousness from the law that the person who does them shall live in them.

Statistics: Posted by moon — June 29th, 2014, 7:34 am

Romans 3:21

New Testament • Re: Rom 3:21-22: Ellipse of  verb

Hi, I found an answer to my question, while scanning the thick grammar book by A. T. Robertson, p. 1184.

Sometimes a word is repeated with DE for special emphasis, as DIKAISUNH in Ro 3:22( cf. 9:30).



So, if DE can introduce a phrase as Rom 9:30, the answer to my question is obvious.

Moon Jung

Statistics: Posted by moon — June 10th, 2014, 7:52 am