An Exegetical Analysis of the Relative Pronoun Antecedent in 2 Peter 2:2 This exegetical study of An Exegetical Analysis of the Relative Pronoun Antecedent in 2 Peter 2:2 is based on a b-greek discussion from May 26, 1999. The initial query concerned the identification of the antecedent for the relative pronoun δι’ οὓς in 2…
Stephen, perfect explanation. I got it.
In the case of Acts 26:16b-17, I should have known that
the relative pronoun, as an anaphoric pronoun like “this”, “that”, “it”, “they”, etc,
can refer to anything that has been introduced to the context so far,
as long as the reader can identify the referent.
I should have remembered the class I once took about “discourse analysis” ^^
Moon Jung
Statistics: Posted by moon — June 10th, 2014, 5:20 am
cwconrad wrote:
Just to update my current state of thinking/confusion about this text:πῶς εἰσῆλθεν εἰς τὸν οἶκον τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ τοὺς ἄρτους τῆς προθέσεως ἔφαγον, ὃ οὐκ ἐξὸν ἦν αὐτῷ φαγεῖν οὐδὲ τοῖς μετ᾿ αὐτοῦ εἰ μὴ τοῖς ἱερεῦσιν μόνοις;
Would the construction be better if the φαγεῖν were omitted?
Statistics: Posted by Stephen Carlson — January 8th, 2014, 3:27 pm
