John 19:27

Topic Prominence Marking: Jn 19b-27 c stirling bartholomew cc.constantine at Tue Nov 6 17:08:41 EST 2001   In 1 Cor 14:26-33 men are meant 2 Samuel 13:15, LXX This is a new thread, a branch from:Re: foreground & background, boundary markers-Longacre’sModelI wrote:> It seems that if Subject(agent) encoding is> considered in isolation from referential…

John 9:27

JN 9:27 Dan and Rachel King dan_rach at Fri Aug 9 12:42:46 EDT 2002   PHROW and PWROW Rom. 2:6-8–why nominatives in THAT slot? MH KAI hUMEIS QELETE AUTOU MAQHTAI GENESQAI;All the English translations I have seem to translate this along the linesof “Do you want to become his disciples too?” From my reading…

John 14:15

Jn 14.15 N & RJ Hanscamp hanscamps at Wed Oct 20 20:25:46 EDT 1999   OU DUNATAI hAMARTIAN in 1 John 3:9 off topic TAUTA LELALHKA (UMIN PAR (UMIN MENWNThe Johannine choice of (UMIN PAR (UMIN MENWN seems interesting to me.Jesus is not described as just being META (UMIN (with you), but”remaining”, just as…

John 10:20


[] JN 10:20 hO PATHR hO DEDWKEN MOI PANTWN MEIZWN ESTIN Elizabeth Kline kline_dekooning at Tue Jul 22 15:29:39 EDT 2008   [] list special day [] JN 10:20 hO PATHR hO DEDWKEN MOI PANTWN MEIZWN ESTIN This is a syntax question, not a question about which reading is original. Metzger and Westcott both…

John 17:5

New Testament • Re: Jn 17:5 position of παρὰ σοί

cwconrad asked, “Am I alone in finding the position of παρὰ σοί here strange?” Information available at, inter alia,, indicates you’re not alone.

In several English translations of patristic allusions related to John 17:5, Irenaeus, Novatian, and Origen put παρὰ σοί in front of πρὸ τοῦ τὸν κόσμον εἶναι. Also, Ignatius omitted παρὰ σοί, and Hippolytus left out the phrase πρὸ τοῦ τὸν κόσμον εἶναι παρὰ σοί.

Statistics: Posted by Pat Ferguson — March 8th, 2014, 6:54 pm

John 1:1

New Testament • John 1:1 (In THE beginning)
Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος

This is always translated as “In the beginning”, but from the little I
understand of Greek grammar, one shouldn’t append the definite article in
English if the article is absent in Greek.

Is this “hyer-literal” translation accurate:

“In origin was the Word” … ologue.htm

ὅτι ἀπ᾽ ἀρχῆς ὁ διάβολος ἁμαρτάνει
“For the devil sins from the beginning.”

The devil has an article, in both Greek and English, but again, beginning
has none.

Apologies for a simplistic question, I’m only two words into the text and
I’m confused.
Can someone clear this up for me?
Danny Diskin

Statistics: Posted by Danny Diskin — April 14th, 2014, 10:40 pm

John 1:18

John 1:18

[] John 1:18b question (and John 1:8) Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at Tue Dec 23 18:01:45 EST 2003   [] John 1:18b question (and John 1:8) [] John 1:18b question (and John 1:8) Please keep this discussion focused on the Greek text rather than upontheological speculations.– Carl W. ConradCo-Chair, ListDepartment of Classics, Washington University…