thanks for the attested απο πρωιθεν.
I am surprised that the English translation (https://philipharland.com/greco-roman-a ... -ii-i-bce/ ) of that instance has “previously” instead of “from the morning”.
Indeed, the christian texts might very well have inherited this construction from the LXX. But why did the LXX used this construction, whilst it wasn’t used in classic Greek, nor in egyptian hellenistic Greek?
Statistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Mon Apr 15, 2024 5:55 am