And I wonder whether πρὸς φθόνον etc. is not after all to be taken as a putative scriptural quote, as everyone has been assuming, but as James’s own comment, with actual quotation coming only after the following διὸ λέγει. I really don't know how plausible this is, but I think it’s worth floating the suggestion.
However that may be, it seems clear that James is deprecating the φθόνος and ζῆλος (jealousy and rivalry) that prevail among his addressees, and is not referring to God’s jealousy. See my first post above.
Statistics: Posted by mwh — Sat Jul 13, 2024 9:00 pm