We also have ἐὰν μή τις ὁδηγήσει με in 8:31, again "corrected" in Byzantine majority texts to subjunctive.
But the NT usage of ἐάν is generally pretty clear. It's not used interchangeably with ἄν, and instead it's only in this usage after relatives that it shows up where you might not expect it. And this Koine ὃς ἄν means something different from ὃς ἄν in Thucydides. Whatever spelling variants go on in the papyri, that's not the explanation here.
Statistics: Posted by jeidsath — Tue Oct 01, 2024 12:14 pm