The aorist here is usually translated as a present i.e. "I am well-pleased" and I'm trying to understand why.
Chapter 33 of CGCG says that aorist indicative in narrative texts is used to present the occurrence of actions in the past (past tense) and as single, completed actions without reference to duration or process (perfective aspect). Then it describes some exceptions e.g. ingressive, complexive, gnomic and tragic aorist. But none of these exceptions seem to apply here in Luke 3:22. Was there another kind of interpretation for aorists in Koine that allowed an aorist to sometimes be translated as a present? Or is this kind of interpretation something specific to the verb (ευ)δοκεω? Is there anything like this in classical Greek?
Thanks in advance :-)
Statistics: Posted by Mitch — Tue Oct 15, 2024 1:26 pm