If of help, the DGE (supplementing LSJ) gives the following:1. s.v. 1 βᾶριςbarca egipcia, A.l.c., Hdt.2.41bis, 96, περιάγειν ἐν βάρισι περὶ τὸ Δέλτα Hdt.2.179, cf. PHib.100.13, PCair.Zen.l.c. (ambos III a.C.), de las barcas de los muertos y de Osiris,…
Dunno. But if you squint and look sideways, it could be a riff on the second half of Ecc 12:7:καὶ τὸ πνεῦμα ἐπιστρέψῃ πρὸς τὸν θεόν, ὃς ἔδωκεν αὐτό.And the spirit returns to the God who gave itΠρὸς φθόνον ἐπιποθεῖ τὸ πνεῦμα ὃ κατῴκισεν ἐν ἡμῖνHe jealo…
Judges:Hey! At Least “τι εμοι και σοι” is there …!Statistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Sun Dec 10, 2023 2:27 pm
dear Mitch,“ I *still* can’t remember all of it “I know very well how that feels! I had my last Greek-Lessons are 40 years ago. Even then I was horrible bad in Greek. Probably my old Greek-Teacher would be very astonished (and happy) to see, that now …
The Greek parallel that comes to mind for me is: “καὶ κατὰ γῆν καὶ κατὰ θάλατταν”. But the double-καί is necessary there.I see that when quoting these verses, many of the Greek writers like to drop the second ἀνὰ μέσον.For example, the non-Semitic Jul…
Thank you both for this thread, which was an eye-opener for me, too, for those exact reasons that @thestuffedowl explains. An accusative as the subject of a verb? Well, well. Whatever next!Statistics: Posted by BrianB — Tue Jul 16, 2024 4:58 pm
Brian, Yes φθόνος is perhaps invariably regarded as bad, and I don’t know if it’s ever attributed to God. In the famous “God is a jealous god” (Exod.20.5, Deut.4.24) the term used is ζηλωτής. In classical Greek, as in the NT, ζῆλος (as applied to huma…
This sort of thing is anathema to me. And why do theologians have to be so very nasty to one another? But I’m trying to understand the syntax along with the sense, starting from ταύτης τοίνυν οὕτω συναιρομένης (6 lines up from end). There it looks to …
Brian, Yes φθόνος is perhaps invariably regarded as bad, and I don’t know if it’s ever attributed to God. In the famous “God is a jealous god” (Exod.20.5, Deut.4.24) the term used is ζηλωτής. In classical Greek, as in the NT, ζῆλος (as applied to huma…
Brian, Yes φθόνος is perhaps invariably regarded as bad, and I don’t know if it’s ever attributed to God. In the famous “God is a jealous god” (Exod.20.5, Deut.4.24) the term used is ζηλωτής. In classical Greek, as in the NT, ζῆλος (as applied to huma…
I think Vers 15:11 and 19 make it clear:οτι ηγνοησεν τον πλασαντα αυτον και τον εμπνευσαντα αυτω ψυχην ενεργουσαν και εμφυσαντα πνευμα ζωτικονbecause he did not know the one who molded him and infused him with an active soul and breathed into him a li…
Well, you’ve come across a good reason to know Greek. I wonder if this is a nasty case of Bible translators being in a rut because they look over each other’s shoulders for the hard bits? Though RSV and a few others are a bit more exact, I see. “…un…
New Testament Grammars have very little justification to exist outside of a religious belief that this collection of books of fairly varied language and style and authorship has some sort of grammatical unity imposed by God. This is not an idea that m…
Thanks! I suspected it was a matter of lengthening or contraction but couldn’t find anything about the development of those articles. Did you just remember about τόνς or did you make use of a source that you can share? Again, thanks for this really he…
I see this forum is mostly discussing biblical Greek, but personally I’m mostly interested in Byzantine texts. I’m currently reading Etymologiarum by Isidore of Seville, and finding it very interesting and legible. I’d love to find something similar i…
Does Mark’s use of the Latin word denarius necessarily mean that he was referring to a coin in that exact value? Couldn’t he perhaps have simply been referring to a drachma, but giving it the name of a Latin near-equivalent to convey his meaning more …
Hi Jean, I think then I’ll skip volume 2 then as I’ve found CGCG *very* helpful in learning endings and other morphology e.g. one doesn’t have to memorize all the weird exceptions if one simply learns the various phonological changes that occurred in …
BTW the reason I want an *exhaustive* concordance of the GNT is so I can find instances of various pronouns and particles in NT verses. Then I can use suchverses to help me remember what a particular pronoun or particle means. For example, if I can fi…
It helps to have a bit of context. But it seems to me most likely that βιάβα represents βιαία as I suggested, and τὸν πεπηγμένον the genitive plural. Then the requisite changes are minimal. ἀνάγκη is the obvious guess for ἀνάγγη but doesn’t account fo…
The physical coins themselves would seem to be their own witness, imo. And the NT is witness to the usage when it was written, slightly later than Jesus’ lifetime.But if only a papyrus will do, this is dated to “29 – 2 BC?”, for whatever the dating is…