And I wonder whether πρὸς φθόνον etc. is not after all to be taken as a putative scriptural quote, as everyone has been assuming, but as James’s own comment, with actual quotation coming only after the following διὸ λέγει. I really don’t know how plau…
No wonder you’re confused. It’s completely unintelligible as it stands, and the Greek must be very wrong. The best I can make of it is τῶν (not τὸν) πεπηγμένων (not -νον) ἐξ ἀνεδράστων(?) ἀναγωγὴ(?) βιαία(?) καὶ ἁρμονία σοφίας. That will mean somethin…
Hi Michael yes I also have BAGD on my bookshelf and consult it from time to time. Having read through Mark and Matthew in the GNT I’m now slowly working through Psalms in the LXX and when I hit an unfamiliar word I check different lexicons in the foll…
You have two examples of the “but instead” meaning in the Psalm quote. I would say that neither appear to use an emphatic negative. And my post was an argument for *not* reading Luke 12:51 with this “but instead” translation. I suggest looking through…
Hi Jean, I think then I’ll skip volume 2 then as I’ve found CGCG *very* helpful in learning endings and other morphology e.g. one doesn’t have to memorize all the weird exceptions if one simply learns the various phonological changes that occurred in …
That single BCE-Papyrus is the one I mentioned in my opening post (by the way: It’s nice that Papyri.info and https://www.papyrusportal.de/content/start.xml) have the possibility to do a text-search).Yes, You’re right, that NT-Witnesses are all from c…
τῆς Μήδων πόλεωςΜήδων is genitive plural, “city of the Medes.” Not “Mede-city.”But why πόλεως and πόλει in the same line?cf. Herodotus 1.128 ἐν τῷ ἄστεϊ τῶν Μήδων. 2 Kings 17:6 ἐν Αλαε καὶ ἐν Αβωρ ποταμοῖς Γωζαν καὶ Ορη Μήδων in Habor iuxta fluvium Go…
The Septuagint’s occasional use of apparent indicative is a different phenomenon.And apparently here too, as Acts 7:7 turns the Septuagint’s ᾧ ἐὰν δουλεύσωσιν into indicative “δουλεύσουσιν”.Statistics: Posted by jeidsath — Mon Sep 30, 2024 11:25 pm
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It’s just pulling in Byzantine majority corrections. Getting your textual criticism from CBGM is about as silly as getting it from chat-gpt, imo.We also have ἐὰν μή τις ὁδηγήσει με in 8:31, again “corrected” in Byzantine majority texts to subjunctive….
Thanks Jean, after checking it out on Archive.org it looks like volume 1 of the Analytical Concordance is what I’m looking for. But I can’t figure out what volume 2 is about, it just looks like an endless stream of phrases with xrefs but no headings–…
Oh, it’s just spitballing. I suspect that others here could give other theories, and hopefully will.Statistics: Posted by jeidsath — Sun Dec 24, 2023 9:13 pm
1 Πόθεν πόλεμοι καὶ πόθεν μάχαι ἐν ὑμῖν οὐκ ἐντεῦθεν ἐκ τῶν ἡδονῶν ὑμῶν τῶν στρατευομένων ἐν τοῖς μέλεσιν ὑμῶν 2 ἐπιθυμεῖτε καὶ οὐκ ἔχετε φονεύετε καὶ ζηλοῦτε καὶ οὐ δύνασθε ἐπιτυχεῖν μάχεσθε καὶ πολεμεῖτε οὐκ ἔχετε διὰ τὸ μὴ αἰτεῖσθαι ὑμᾶς 3 αἰτεῖτε …
And I wonder whether πρὸς φθόνον etc. is not after all to be taken as a putative scriptural quote, as everyone has been assuming, but as James’s own comment, with actual quotation coming only after the following διὸ λέγει. I really don’t know how plau…
I am so confused about this sentence in Acts of John 98: καὶ τὸν πεπηγμένον ἐξ ἀνεδράστων ἀνάγγη βιάβα καὶ ἁρμονία σοφίας·so, ἀνάγγη, is the verb (aor.pass.ind.) and βιάβα might be predicative to the implicit subject of ἀνάγγη. What I don’t get is τὸν…
I disagree. πρός has many uses besides making an adverb. I gave the most neutral and least question-begging one. I’m well aware that “God’s jealousy is in fact a frequent topic in scripture”—less so in the NT than in the Septuagint, however, and not i…
Sorry, I can’t get the “Image” thing to display properly. Here’s the link:https://www.artic.edu/artworks/142244/t … r-tiberiusStatistics: Posted by BrianB — Sat May 04, 2024 1:51 pm
“With regard to φθόνος” hardly fits. For πρὸς φθόνον, of course, we have LSJ.πρός.C.I.7 “πρός c.acc. freq. periphr. for Adv. …” Rather then context precluding it, God’s jealousy is in fact a frequent topic in scripture. Verse 4, with the accusation …
Hi all, this is mind-boggling to me as well, but my first reaction was that this might be a gloss interpolation (i.e. textual corruption caused by someone copying into the main text a marginal note). A further bit of context I noted was that this sect…
Interestingly, I looked at a few English translations of this verse, and they do use the “passive” (as in “implication of an agent”): New International VersionFor the secret power of lawlessness is already at work; but the one who now holds it back wi…
Thanks Joel. Interesting that the emphatic negative οὐχί is in both the 1 Ki and Lk examples (though not in Ps 1:4).Statistics: Posted by Mitch — Sat May 18, 2024 3:36 pm