Hi Mitch, Yes CGCG is an outstanding resource (though it came too late for me). You have a nice example of ὁποῖος in Paul’s autobiographical speech to Agrippa in Acts 26, which I always remember because it’s so egomaniacal: εὐξαίμην ἂν … πάντας τοὺς ἀ…
Here’s Polybius with an aorist of the same verb, taking a dative object. After laying out the main points of the treaty:Ταῦτα μὲν οὖν ὑπετυπώθη τότε κεφαλαιωδῶς περὶ τῶν διαλύσεων· ἔδει δὲ τούτοις πρῶτον μὲν εὐδοκῆσαι τοὺς Αἰτωλούς, μετὰ δὲ ταῦτα γίνε…
Ah, I missed that in verse 2, thanks. But again the ἢ may have been included there to signal a comparison between the two behaviors described in verses 1 and 2. The reason I’m bringing this up is because I just finished reading Chapter 32 Comparison o…
Thanks.That means that for the time being the NT is the only witness for the use of δηναριον in Jesus-Lifetime.Statistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Sun Dec 24, 2023 7:07 am
Arrian, Anabasis 3.19.7 He instructed Parmenio to deposit the money which was being conveyed from Persis in the citadel at EcbatanaΠαρμενίωνα δὲ προσέταξε τὰ χρήματα τὰ ἐκ Περσῶν κομιζόμενα εἰς τὴν ἄκραν τὴν ἐν Ἐκβατάνοις παραδοῦναεἰς τὴν ἄκραν τὴν ἐν…
(as in Acts the journeys of Paul are clearly creatively constructed by someone trying to give a narrative to the names and places mentioned). .Joel, that prompts me to ask, what is your view of the “we” passages in Acts? For my part, they have always…
I disagree. πρός has many uses besides making an adverb. I gave the most neutral and least question-begging one. I’m well aware that “God’s jealousy is in fact a frequent topic in scripture”—less so in the NT than in the Septuagint, however, and not i…
…which makes me wonder if the repetition of οὐχ οὕτως in Psalm 1:4 is perhaps another way of expressing an emphatic negative in Greek? In other words, maybe ἀλλ’ ἢ only means “but rather / but instead” when it is immediately preceeded by an emphatic…
The Greek parallel that comes to mind for me is: “καὶ κατὰ γῆν καὶ κατὰ θάλατταν”. But the double-καί is necessary there.I see that when quoting these verses, many of the Greek writers like to drop the second ἀνὰ μέσον.For example, the non-Semitic Jul…
Hi all, just to zoom out to the broader context (and in passing I note that I agree with Michael that, when you read the whole sentence, τὸ πνεῦμα must be the object, especially given κατῴκισεν in the relative clause for which the subject must be God)…
The fairly Pauline statements in Acts 26 are no doubt constructed from the letters (as in Acts the journeys of Paul are clearly creatively constructed by someone trying to give a narrative to the names and places mentioned). For Acts 26:29 in particul…
There are two Concordances:1: Philipp S. Clapp, Barbara Friberg, Timothy Friberg: Analytical Concordance of the Greek New Testament(https://www.abebooks.co.uk/servlet/Sear … ance&sts=t)2: H. Bachmann, w.a. slaby ; Computer Concordance to the Nov…
Double-check that Judges quote.Even worse than wikipedia, ChatGPT is often a bad approximation of conventional wisdom being repeated back at you. It will make up supporting evidence when it doesn’t have anything available.Statistics: Posted by jeidsat…
Credit to Michael for arriving at the same independently. (Though I didn’t quite understand his comment about “the translation’s ‘uplifting'”, lol.)Maybe someone can post the exact manuscript text without all these (very very esteemed) editorial specu…
Brian, Yes φθόνος is perhaps invariably regarded as bad, and I don’t know if it’s ever attributed to God. In the famous “God is a jealous god” (Exod.20.5, Deut.4.24) the term used is ζηλωτής. In classical Greek, as in the NT, ζῆλος (as applied to huma…
Ah, thank you. I tried to find a little bit about him, but I was silly enough to think that Innsbruck was German, not Austrian.As I said, I liked his discussion best by far, though that Luke 23:31 citation remains very puzzling. Surely no one interpre…
Ἐκβάτανα is Persian, not Greek, and the various transliterations are attempts at representing the Persian. No need to bring in ἐκβαίνω/ἀποβαίνω at all.I am inclining towards ψυχομαντεῖον as the meaning behind Ἐκβάτανα and 𐤀𐤇𐤌𐤕𐤀 ( ̓Αχαιμενίδες?) since …
It looks as if it came into NT from LXX, and didn’t spread much further. That wouldn’t be too remarkable would it?(SEG 31.983 has απο πρωιθεν, II/I BCE.)Statistics: Posted by mwh — Sun Apr 14, 2024 11:35 pm
Thanks that makes sense Joel. The NETS which translates from the Septuagint has:Not so, the impious, not so!Rather, they are like the dust that…And the LSJ entry for ἤ has this under the heading B. COMPARATIVE: after Advbs. or adverbial phrases, πλή…
The Septuagint puts ἐάν/ἄν after ὅς (and other relatives) with extreme frequency to mean whoever/whatever/etc. Attic doesn’t do this.The first example smack at the beginning of Genesis:καὶ ἤγαγεν αὐτὰ πρὸς τὸν Αδαμ ἰδεῖν, τί καλέσει αὐτά, καὶ πᾶν, ὃ ἐ…