And I wonder whether πρὸς φθόνον etc. is not after all to be taken as a putative scriptural quote, as everyone has been assuming, but as James’s own comment, with actual quotation coming only after the following διὸ λέγει. I really don’t know how plau…
Yeah, I had a post written up about the earlier πεπηγμένος, but happily Chad’s post covered it first.I can get closer to the spelling, if you’d like.So αναγκη βιαια – irresistible necessity – would be great, but you would have to imagine a dropped ver…
dear Mitch,“ I *still* can’t remember all of it “I know very well how that feels! I had my last Greek-Lessons are 40 years ago. Even then I was horrible bad in Greek. Probably my old Greek-Teacher would be very astonished (and happy) to see, that now …
Hmm, I’m not sure it’s reported speech as I think maybe φησὶν here is intentional i.e. “The transgressor thinks (resolves) to sin” as per LSJ II b. And I was thinking that αὐτοῦ in ἐνώπιον αὐτοῦ is “self” here, so ἐδόλωσεν ἐνώπιον αὐτοῦ is “he disguis…
It’s the difference between lower and lowest, but in some contexts that’s not a significant difference.Statistics: Posted by mwh — Mon Jul 01, 2024 8:29 pm
It looks as if it came into NT from LXX, and didn’t spread much further. That wouldn’t be too remarkable would it?(SEG 31.983 has απο πρωιθεν, II/I BCE.)Statistics: Posted by mwh — Sun Apr 14, 2024 11:35 pm
Well let’s not go overboard over this. We’re talking of the accusative as the subject of an infinitive, and there’s nothing weird about that, it’s perfectly regular, and extremely common. Even in English we can say “I believe him to be an idiot” (Lat….
The relatively contemporary itala and Vulgate as well as the Gothic translated this aorist with a perfect (conplacui(t); sensi; genui) resp. a preterite (≈imperfect) galeikaida (A.pret.Ind.Sg.1 = i liked, began to like). In their opinion it seems this…
You have two examples of the “but instead” meaning in the Psalm quote. I would say that neither appear to use an emphatic negative. And my post was an argument for *not* reading Luke 12:51 with this “but instead” translation. I suggest looking through…
Is that the only instance, where the Greek απο μακροθεν exactly fits to the Hebrew text?Statistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Sat Apr 13, 2024 12:11 pm
Thank you indeed for this. :-)One of the problems all language learners face is trying to fit strange constructions into our mental framework of how a language “should” work. Infinitives that take accusatives as subjects rather than objects is definit…
(as in Acts the journeys of Paul are clearly creatively constructed by someone trying to give a narrative to the names and places mentioned). .Joel, that prompts me to ask, what is your view of the “we” passages in Acts? For my part, they have always…
If you’re wondering why the accents are different in this case, my understanding is that it’s because of how the endings were derived. τοῦ and τούς are like second declension nouns and adjectives which are accented on the last syllable, e.g. ἀγρός.In …
Question: Is there a concordance of the Greek New Testament that’s similar in style to the Hatch and Redpath Concordance of the Septuaguint? i.e. which lists in alphabetical order every Greek word (including stop words which Perseus doesn’t index) fou…
Job 37:9ἐκ ταμιείων ἐπέρχονται δῖναι ἀπὸ δὲ ἀκρωτηρίων ψῦχοςBrenton’s Troubles come on out of the secret chambers, and cold from the mountain-topsKJV Out of the south cometh the whirlwind: and cold out of the north.Vulgate ab interioribus egreditur te…
The adverbial construction απο + adverb with suffix -θεν (απο μακροθεν, απο πριωθεν, απο εμπροσθεν etc.) occurs about 20 times in LXX; in the NT απο μακροθεν 12 times, once απο ανωθεν in Mk 15:38), and in some Churchfathers.In Homer (Iliad 12:205 a…
Thanks! I suspected it was a matter of lengthening or contraction but couldn’t find anything about the development of those articles. Did you just remember about τόνς or did you make use of a source that you can share? Again, thanks for this really he…
The Greek parallel that comes to mind for me is: “καὶ κατὰ γῆν καὶ κατὰ θάλατταν”. But the double-καί is necessary there.I see that when quoting these verses, many of the Greek writers like to drop the second ἀνὰ μέσον.For example, the non-Semitic Jul…
Yes but it’s the ἀλλ’ἤ combo—quite illogical on its face—that stands in need of explanation. Whatever its origin I think it just has to be accepted as a linguistic quirk.Statistics: Posted by mwh — Thu May 16, 2024 7:26 pm
Greetings! I’m here to call upon the collective wisdom of this forum regarding a particularly tricky (at least for me) passage in one of Gregory Palamas’ Antirrhetikoi against Gregory Akindynos. I’ll drop the entire passage below, along with my attemp…