Koine and Biblical and Medieval Greek • Re: ἢ in LXX Psalm 1:4
Ah you’re right, sorry. Not enough caffeine this morning :-PStatistics: Posted by Mitch — Sat May 18, 2024 4:01 pm
Ah you’re right, sorry. Not enough caffeine this morning :-PStatistics: Posted by Mitch — Sat May 18, 2024 4:01 pm
For those who may be interested, here are pdf files of the Philokalia in Greek:https://greekphilokalia.wordpress.com/Statistics: Posted by bedwere — Fri Sep 29, 2023 5:43 pm
Regarding the Expresssion τι εμοι και σοι I asked Chat gtp.Well, chat gtp did quite nice in NT and LXX aspects, but then … the classic Greek Literature: Chat gtp must have some peculiar Library with unique editions of the Iliad and of Medea:Chat-Log: …
Thanks! I suspected it was a matter of lengthening or contraction but couldn’t find anything about the development of those articles. Did you just remember about τόνς or did you make use of a source that you can share? Again, thanks for this really he…
The ZIP-file is also available at:https://github.com/JeanLCP/NT-GREEK-MS-TRANSCRIPTIONSStatistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Thu Feb 08, 2024 9:15 am
I hope I’m not breaking any rules by reopening a thread that has been dormant for six months. I just noticed that Joachim Jeremias gives his own answer to your specific question, citing chapter and verse, on p. 9 of his book New Testament Theology (li…
In Revelation 13:15 English (LSB) – And it was given to him to give breath to the image of the beast, so that the image of the beast would even speak and cause as many as do not worship the image of the beast to be killed.Greek – καὶ ἐδόθη αὐτῷ δοῦναι…
It’s just pulling in Byzantine majority corrections. Getting your textual criticism from CBGM is about as silly as getting it from chat-gpt, imo.We also have ἐὰν μή τις ὁδηγήσει με in 8:31, again “corrected” in Byzantine majority texts to subjunctive….
Our personal beliefs about God do not come to bear on understanding whether or not the language here is being used in a manner consistent with the worldview of the author. It is something that we expect to ask of any author, and it is not a religious …
Thank you indeed for this. :-)One of the problems all language learners face is trying to fit strange constructions into our mental framework of how a language “should” work. Infinitives that take accusatives as subjects rather than objects is definit…
That particular story is original with Matthew, I suspect, and the usage of δηνάριον in Mark would be sufficient to explain Matthew’s word choices, as Matthew is trying to both retell and imitate Mark. Besides, Matthew is writing late, after the 70 A….
What Bible verse is George MacDonald talking about here? Mysterious passageShow“About two years ago,” said Polwarth, “a friend sent me Tauchnitz’s edition of the English New Testament, which has the different readings of the three oldest known manuscr…
AdditionAlfred SchmollerHandkonkordanz zum griechischen Neuen Testament (14th ed 1968)https://www.abebooks.co.uk/servlet/Sear … danz&sts=tStatistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Sat Aug 17, 2024 2:19 pm
You have two examples of the “but instead” meaning in the Psalm quote. I would say that neither appear to use an emphatic negative. And my post was an argument for *not* reading Luke 12:51 with this “but instead” translation. I suggest looking through…
The adverbial construction απο + adverb with suffix -θεν (απο μακροθεν, απο πριωθεν, απο εμπροσθεν etc.) occurs about 20 times in LXX; in the NT απο μακροθεν 12 times, once απο ανωθεν in Mk 15:38), and in some Churchfathers.In Homer (Iliad 12:205 a…
Thanks that makes sense Joel. The NETS which translates from the Septuagint has:Not so, the impious, not so!Rather, they are like the dust that…And the LSJ entry for ἤ has this under the heading B. COMPARATIVE: after Advbs. or adverbial phrases, πλή…
The important thing here—and hopefully this will solve your problem—is that εαν is just an alternative spelling of αν, and αν with subjunctive (επιθῶ) makes an indefinite clause. ᾧ ἐὰν ἐπιθῶ τὰς χεῖρας is literally “on whomever I put the hands”, i.e. …
Ah, I missed that in verse 2, thanks. But again the ἢ may have been included there to signal a comparison between the two behaviors described in verses 1 and 2. The reason I’m bringing this up is because I just finished reading Chapter 32 Comparison o…
ἀλλʼ ἤ seems to mean “but rather” in those verses. IMO, that would make ἤ here somewhat similar to the LSJ A.I.3 “or else, otherwise”, although not quite the same thing.How do the English bibles translate these verses?Statistics: Posted by jeidsath — …
And I wonder whether πρὸς φθόνον etc. is not after all to be taken as a putative scriptural quote, as everyone has been assuming, but as James’s own comment, with actual quotation coming only after the following διὸ λέγει. I really don’t know how plau…