Dunno. But if you squint and look sideways, it could be a riff on the second half of Ecc 12:7:καὶ τὸ πνεῦμα ἐπιστρέψῃ πρὸς τὸν θεόν, ὃς ἔδωκεν αὐτό.And the spirit returns to the God who gave itΠρὸς φθόνον ἐπιποθεῖ τὸ πνεῦμα ὃ κατῴκισεν ἐν ἡμῖνHe jealo…
AdditionAlfred SchmollerHandkonkordanz zum griechischen Neuen Testament (14th ed 1968)https://www.abebooks.co.uk/servlet/Sear … danz&sts=tStatistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Sat Aug 17, 2024 2:19 pm
If you’re wondering why the accents are different in this case, my understanding is that it’s because of how the endings were derived. τοῦ and τούς are like second declension nouns and adjectives which are accented on the last syllable, e.g. ἀγρός.In …
Hi Mitch, Yes CGCG is an outstanding resource (though it came too late for me). You have a nice example of ὁποῖος in Paul’s autobiographical speech to Agrippa in Acts 26, which I always remember because it’s so egomaniacal: εὐξαίμην ἂν … πάντας τοὺς ἀ…
@katalogon – Thanks for the article about performatives and tragic aorist. CGCG briefly discusses use of present tense (sec. 33.12n1) and aorist tense (sec. 33.33) in performatives and I think that’s probably what’s happening in this passage i.e. aori…
@Saboi“πύργος and this the true cognate of *burg-“No, Germanic (at word-beginning “Anlaut”) b always< idg bh; Greek π alway idg p or q(u).So *burg is not a cognate of πυργ-.germanic *burg- (Gothic baurgs = village; in Gothic u+r > au+r) and Berg…
Good question. You’ve nearly got it. αυτόν is not the object but the subject of γεννῆσαι. μετὰ τὸ γεννῆσαι αὐτὸν τὸν Σάλα is a prepositional phrase meaning “after he (αυτὸν) begot Sala.” τὸ is the neuter article, here accusative, governed by μετά “aft…
The 16th line up. It has lines over ΠΝΑ and ΘΣ as before.In English I say, “water is wet and in water we become wet.” In Greek, “ὑγρὸν τὸ ὕδωρ καὶ ἐν ὕδατι ὑγραζόμεθα”. ὕδωρ is water when it’s the subject of a sentence and ὕδατι is water when it comes…
ἀλλʼ ἤ seems to mean “but rather” in those verses. IMO, that would make ἤ here somewhat similar to the LSJ A.I.3 “or else, otherwise”, although not quite the same thing.How do the English bibles translate these verses?Statistics: Posted by jeidsath — …
Thank you both for this thread, which was an eye-opener for me, too, for those exact reasons that @thestuffedowl explains. An accusative as the subject of a verb? Well, well. Whatever next!Statistics: Posted by BrianB — Tue Jul 16, 2024 4:58 pm
This sort of thing is anathema to me. And why do theologians have to be so very nasty to one another? But I’m trying to understand the syntax along with the sense, starting from ταύτης τοίνυν οὕτω συναιρομένης (6 lines up from end). There it looks to …
In the LXX/Septuaginta one finds (examples just for Genesis and Exodus) a: [ανα μεσον + Gen.Sg.] (Ex. 26:10) b: [ανα μεσον + Gen.Pl.] ; (Ex. 22:10; 25:22; 26:28; 28:33; 36:32;Gen. 15:17; 31:37; 31:53; 42:23; 49:14c: [ανα μεσον + Gen. + Gen.] (Ex. 11:7…
Thanks that makes sense Joel. The NETS which translates from the Septuagint has:Not so, the impious, not so!Rather, they are like the dust that…And the LSJ entry for ἤ has this under the heading B. COMPARATIVE: after Advbs. or adverbial phrases, πλή…
Having looked at the Tauchnitz New Testament that MacDonald mentions, I think that one possibility is that he means Matthew 17:21 and Mark 9:29. Matthew 17:21: “Howbeit this kind goeth not out but by prayer and fasting.”The apparatus lists S*V as omit…
The adverbial construction απο + adverb with suffix -θεν (απο μακροθεν, απο πριωθεν, απο εμπροσθεν etc.) occurs about 20 times in LXX; in the NT απο μακροθεν 12 times, once απο ανωθεν in Mk 15:38), and in some Churchfathers.In Homer (Iliad 12:205 a…
Fascinating, thanks Joel! Where can I find Chrysostom’s commentary on the Psalms in the original Greek?Statistics: Posted by Mitch — Sun Mar 24, 2024 4:28 pm
In the light of the decision of almost every Bible translator, past and present, to go for the passive voice in English in this verse (Luke 12:20), it would be easy to assume that Luke’s use of the 3rd person plural with the verb in the active voice m…
Is there an example φημι used that way with an articular infinitive or a genitive? It seems odd to me, but maybe it’s an LXX thing.And you’d have to show me some usage examples of ἐνώπιον αὐτοῦ used like that. The “disguise in front of himself” idiom …
Addition: Zerwick 1963 page 1-4 (“The use of the Plural”: https://archive.org/details/biblicalgre … 7/mode/2up. : To Borrow for 1 hour!)Statistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Tue Oct 24, 2023 3:45 pm
@Saboi“πύργος and this the true cognate of *burg-“No, Germanic (at word-beginning “Anlaut”) b always< idg bh; Greek π alway idg p or q(u).So *burg is not a cognate of πυργ-.germanic *burg- (Gothic baurgs = village; in Gothic u+r > au+r) and Berg…