καὶ τὸν πεπηγμένον ἐξ ἀνεδράστων ἀνάγει ἡ γῆ βεβαία καὶ ἁρμονία σοφίαςAnd the solid ground and jointure/”harmony” of wisdom uplifts the affixed [cross of light] from unstable [things; perhaps the list that follows].Statistics: Posted by jeidsath — Tue…
Does this fit with the context at all? I’ve never come across this text, which looks pretty weird. Christian mysticism?Yes, sort of, its a so-called AAA – apocryphal acts of the apostles with “John” as the main character. With much dualism/mysticism g…
No wonder you’re confused. It’s completely unintelligible as it stands, and the Greek must be very wrong. The best I can make of it is τῶν (not τὸν) πεπηγμένων (not -νον) ἐξ ἀνεδράστων(?) ἀναγωγὴ(?) βιαία(?) καὶ ἁρμονία σοφίας. That will mean somethin…
Thanks for the lengthy explanation. Merry Christmas!Statistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Sun Dec 24, 2023 5:36 pm
Yeah, I had a post written up about the earlier πεπηγμένος, but happily Chad’s post covered it first.I can get closer to the spelling, if you’d like.So αναγκη βιαια – irresistible necessity – would be great, but you would have to imagine a dropped ver…
In four verses in the synoptic Gospels, the reader is presented with evidence of what seems to be a disagreement between the Evangelists about the rules of syntax. Each of the four verses, using slightly different wording, reproduces one of Jesus’ say…
Is there an example φημι used that way with an articular infinitive or a genitive? It seems odd to me, but maybe it’s an LXX thing.And you’d have to show me some usage examples of ἐνώπιον αὐτοῦ used like that. The “disguise in front of himself” idiom …
I thought that this might just be something to do with the poetry here, and looked at how ἀλλ’ ἤ gets used elsewhere. A quick scan through Genesis and the early books of the LXX shows it mostly being used in the “standard” way, to mean “unless” or “ex…
This seems to be mostly nonsense. I recommend the Academy as a great place to go wild with your ideas.1. You’ve replaced ἐπέρχονται with the fantastically incorrect βαίνουσα, a feminine participle, which does not agree with your masculine “τυφών”, and…
Thanks Joel. Interesting that the emphatic negative οὐχί is in both the 1 Ki and Lk examples (though not in Ps 1:4).Statistics: Posted by Mitch — Sat May 18, 2024 3:36 pm
Hi everyone.Can someone help me with this sentence in Acts 8,19:δότε κἀμοὶ τὴν ἐξουσίαν ταύτην ἵνα ᾧ ἐὰν ἐπιθῶ τὰς χεῖρας λαμβάνῃ πνεῦμα ἅγιον.The official translation says: “Give me this power also, so that anyone on whom I lay my hands may receive t…
A nice try Joel. Chad noted the cross was fixed (πεπηγμένος) at the beginning of the section, so there can’t be much doubt about τὸν πεπηγμένον here—a different conception from the walking talking cross of the Gospel of Peter, but evidently reflecting…
Thanks for that. I need to have more thinking. Would you suggest that it could mean “force” the way some translations render it?I should clarify my argument; I’m not suggesting it is “more accurate” translation. It is prophetic language after all. I…
Brian, Yes φθόνος is perhaps invariably regarded as bad, and I don’t know if it’s ever attributed to God. In the famous “God is a jealous god” (Exod.20.5, Deut.4.24) the term used is ζηλωτής. In classical Greek, as in the NT, ζῆλος (as applied to huma…
Hmm, I’m not sure it’s reported speech as I think maybe φησὶν here is intentional i.e. “The transgressor thinks (resolves) to sin” as per LSJ II b. And I was thinking that αὐτοῦ in ἐνώπιον αὐτοῦ is “self” here, so ἐδόλωσεν ἐνώπιον αὐτοῦ is “he disguis…
His source, Billerbeck/Leberecht, for that “usual periphrasis” line relies on Luther’s unfortunate German translation to make its point:https://archive.org/details/kommentarzu … 0/mode/2upSo his argument as it stands doesn’t hold up.But I would agre…
Have a look at the section on dramatic aorist (also called tragic aorist) in this ancient Greek wiki article:https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aorist_(Ancient_Greek)Also see this article:https://biblingo.org/blog/biblical-gree … ark-111-2/Statistics: Po…
ἀλλʼ ἤ seems to mean “but rather” in those verses. IMO, that would make ἤ here somewhat similar to the LSJ A.I.3 “or else, otherwise”, although not quite the same thing.How do the English bibles translate these verses?Statistics: Posted by jeidsath — …
I got the above from the digitalized version in TLG, but you can see it on page 686 in the original Migne volume on the lower right of the page.Notice the [Sp.] in my citation. It is from the Spuria section of the Chrysostom volume. See page 675 for a…
Your paraphrase eliminates the odd part. Wird man fordern is “one will demand” or “they will demand.”And it gets really strange when you have to translate that ἀπαιτεῖν, which Luther did not have in the Greek version that he was working from.Statistic…