One of the main uses of ποιεῖν is to “cause” things to be in a certain state or to happen. The Greeks used it like that all the way back to Homer.ἡ δ’ οὔτ’ ἀρνεῖται στυγερὸν γάμον οὔτε τελευτὴν / ποιῆσαι δύναταιAnd she [Penelope] neither refuses the o…
…which makes me wonder if the repetition of οὐχ οὕτως in Psalm 1:4 is perhaps another way of expressing an emphatic negative in Greek? In other words, maybe ἀλλ’ ἢ only means “but rather / but instead” when it is immediately preceeded by an emphatic…
Question: Is there a concordance of the Greek New Testament that’s similar in style to the Hatch and Redpath Concordance of the Septuaguint? i.e. which lists in alphabetical order every Greek word (including stop words which Perseus doesn’t index) fou…
Hi Mitch, Yes CGCG is an outstanding resource (though it came too late for me). You have a nice example of ὁποῖος in Paul’s autobiographical speech to Agrippa in Acts 26, which I always remember because it’s so egomaniacal: εὐξαίμην ἂν … πάντας τοὺς ἀ…
Well, yes. More specifically, in such documents I don’t think there’s any difference between επιστασθαι and ειδεναι. His “not knowing letters” just means he ’s illiterate, can neither read nor write. The two went together in the education system. They…
ἀλλʼ ἤ seems to mean “but rather” in those verses. IMO, that would make ἤ here somewhat similar to the LSJ A.I.3 “or else, otherwise”, although not quite the same thing.How do the English bibles translate these verses?Statistics: Posted by jeidsath — …
Even clearer would be Ecclesiastes 12:7, or Job 1:21: “καὶ τὸ πνεῦμα ἐπιστρέψῃ πρὸς τὸν θεόν, ὃς ἔδωκεν αὐτό”, or “αὐτὸς γυμνὸς ἐξῆλθον ἐκ κοιλίας μητρός μου, γυμνὸς καὶ ἀπελεύσομαι ἐκεῖ· ὁ κύριος ἔδωκεν, ὁ κύριος ἀφείλατο.” But God’s ultimate agency …
αὕτη ἐγενήθη μοι ὅτι τὰ δικαιώματά σου ἐξεζήτησαNETS translates this as:”This [note added: antecedent unclear] fell to me, because I sought your statues”But could it also be translated like this:”This fell to me, that I sought your statues” i.e. “This…
BTW the reason I want an *exhaustive* concordance of the GNT is so I can find instances of various pronouns and particles in NT verses. Then I can use suchverses to help me remember what a particular pronoun or particle means. For example, if I can fi…
Is there an example φημι used that way with an articular infinitive or a genitive? It seems odd to me, but maybe it’s an LXX thing.And you’d have to show me some usage examples of ἐνώπιον αὐτοῦ used like that. The “disguise in front of himself” idiom …
It’s just pulling in Byzantine majority corrections. Getting your textual criticism from CBGM is about as silly as getting it from chat-gpt, imo.We also have ἐὰν μή τις ὁδηγήσει με in 8:31, again “corrected” in Byzantine majority texts to subjunctive….
Hi All,I am new here having just joined today. I am working to acquire some facility in Koine Greek. I already have some facility with Hebrew and have just begun with Latin.I am working my through and greatly enjoying Genesis in the LXX and there is s…
Brian, Yes φθόνος is perhaps invariably regarded as bad, and I don’t know if it’s ever attributed to God. In the famous “God is a jealous god” (Exod.20.5, Deut.4.24) the term used is ζηλωτής. In classical Greek, as in the NT, ζῆλος (as applied to huma…
Brian, Yes φθόνος is perhaps invariably regarded as bad, and I don’t know if it’s ever attributed to God. In the famous “God is a jealous god” (Exod.20.5, Deut.4.24) the term used is ζηλωτής. In classical Greek, as in the NT, ζῆλος (as applied to huma…
Ah, I missed that in verse 2, thanks. But again the ἢ may have been included there to signal a comparison between the two behaviors described in verses 1 and 2. The reason I’m bringing this up is because I just finished reading Chapter 32 Comparison o…
I take it that he’s deploring φθόνος among his addressees. This fits with his inveighing against their internal dissensions (4.1 πόθεν πόλεμοι και πόθεν μάχαι εν ὑμιν; etc., 2 ζηλοῦτε etc., cf. 3.14 ει δε ζῆλον …) and with the rest of the letter. ζῆ…
I see we have ἀλλ’ ἢ not only in 4 but already in 2, and it’s well attested in the Septuagint. It’s an oddity—seemingly no different from simple ἀλλά in sense, though it’s sometimes said to be “stronger.” I think there may well have been some sort of …
Does Mark’s use of the Latin word denarius necessarily mean that he was referring to a coin in that exact value? Couldn’t he perhaps have simply been referring to a drachma, but giving it the name of a Latin near-equivalent to convey his meaning more …
It looks as if it came into NT from LXX, and didn’t spread much further. That wouldn’t be too remarkable would it?(SEG 31.983 has απο πρωιθεν, II/I BCE.)Statistics: Posted by mwh — Sun Apr 14, 2024 11:35 pm
I am so confused about this sentence in Acts of John 98: καὶ τὸν πεπηγμένον ἐξ ἀνεδράστων ἀνάγγη βιάβα καὶ ἁρμονία σοφίας·so, ἀνάγγη, is the verb (aor.pass.ind.) and βιάβα might be predicative to the implicit subject of ἀνάγγη. What I don’t get is τὸν…