Does Mark’s use of the Latin word denarius necessarily mean that he was referring to a coin in that exact value? Couldn’t he perhaps have simply been referring to a drachma, but giving it the name of a Latin near-equivalent to convey his meaning more …
It looks as if it came into NT from LXX, and didn’t spread much further. That wouldn’t be too remarkable would it?(SEG 31.983 has απο πρωιθεν, II/I BCE.)Statistics: Posted by mwh — Sun Apr 14, 2024 11:35 pm
I am so confused about this sentence in Acts of John 98: καὶ τὸν πεπηγμένον ἐξ ἀνεδράστων ἀνάγγη βιάβα καὶ ἁρμονία σοφίας·so, ἀνάγγη, is the verb (aor.pass.ind.) and βιάβα might be predicative to the implicit subject of ἀνάγγη. What I don’t get is τὸν…
I hope I’m not breaking any rules by reopening a thread that has been dormant for six months. I just noticed that Joachim Jeremias gives his own answer to your specific question, citing chapter and verse, on p. 9 of his book New Testament Theology (li…
Well, we’ve gotten to “demand back” and an implied subject at least, I should be happy…Is the agent really specifically conceived of as God in the Wisdom verse? The τὸ τῆς ψυχῆς ἀπαιτηθεὶς χρέος is even more similar than Luke 12:20 to τὸ τέλος ὁ χρό…
τῆς Μήδων πόλεωςΜήδων is genitive plural, “city of the Medes.” Not “Mede-city.”Statistics: Posted by Chris Weimer — Sat Mar 30, 2024 2:54 am
Hi All,I am new here having just joined today. I am working to acquire some facility in Koine Greek. I already have some facility with Hebrew and have just begun with Latin.I am working my through and greatly enjoying Genesis in the LXX and there is s…
Brian, Yes φθόνος is perhaps invariably regarded as bad, and I don’t know if it’s ever attributed to God. In the famous “God is a jealous god” (Exod.20.5, Deut.4.24) the term used is ζηλωτής. In classical Greek, as in the NT, ζῆλος (as applied to huma…
Hi Joel, I don’t have a facsimile of the manuscript itself, but maybe it’s online: if anyone wanted to track it down, the 1983 critical edition describes manuscript C as sitting in the National Library of Austria, ref. ‘hist. gr. 63’, dated 1319, on p…
@mwhthanks for the attested απο πρωιθεν. I am surprised that the English translation (https://philipharland.com/greco-roman-a … -ii-i-bce/ ) of that instance has “previously” instead of “from the morning”.Indeed, the christian texts might very well …
Oh, it’s just spitballing. I suspect that others here could give other theories, and hopefully will.Statistics: Posted by jeidsath — Sun Dec 24, 2023 9:13 pm
This post is question, but includes a lot of research. I’m calling all Greek nerds here… if anyone has any comments or suggestions for this list below, your (constructive) criticism is welcome. Let me begin… you don’t have to spend long in Greek b…
Isagoge may depend on how much you like Aristotle.The Suda is more of an encyclopedia, if that is what you are looking for. I would be surprised if there is no Latin translation. [EDIT: Ludolph Küster’s version (1705) has a Latin translation]Statistic…
Joel has tried to explain this to you patiently and so have I, although perhaps not so patiently. You look at what you call ”Scripture” (for me it’s just an old text) as if it were a puzzle that can be forced to mean anything you want by assembling th…
Good question. You’ve nearly got it. αυτόν is not the object but the subject of γεννῆσαι. μετὰ τὸ γεννῆσαι αὐτὸν τὸν Σάλα is a prepositional phrase meaning “after he (αυτὸν) begot Sala.” τὸ is the neuter article, here accusative, governed by μετά “aft…
Hi Joel, I don’t have a facsimile of the manuscript itself, but maybe it’s online: if anyone wanted to track it down, the 1983 critical edition describes manuscript C as sitting in the National Library of Austria, ref. ‘hist. gr. 63’, dated 1319, on p…
In the LXX/Septuaginta one finds (examples just for Genesis and Exodus) a: [ανα μεσον + Gen.Sg.] (Ex. 26:10) b: [ανα μεσον + Gen.Pl.] ; (Ex. 22:10; 25:22; 26:28; 28:33; 36:32;Gen. 15:17; 31:37; 31:53; 42:23; 49:14c: [ανα μεσον + Gen. + Gen.] (Ex. 11:7…
Brian, Yes φθόνος is perhaps invariably regarded as bad, and I don’t know if it’s ever attributed to God. In the famous “God is a jealous god” (Exod.20.5, Deut.4.24) the term used is ζηλωτής. In classical Greek, as in the NT, ζῆλος (as applied to huma…
Is the answer really as simple as that? That’s good to know. Thank you, @mwh!Statistics: Posted by BrianB — Tue Jul 02, 2024 1:23 pm
μακρόθεν doesn’t have a great deal of pre-LXX attestation, I notice.Mark’s ἀπὸ ἄνωθεν strikes me as pretty similar to ἐκ τοῦ ἄνωθεν. [Funnily enough, this very phrase struck me as odd the other day, on Holy Friday, when I was reading through passion a…