Ah, I missed that in verse 2, thanks. But again the ἢ may have been included there to signal a comparison between the two behaviors described in verses 1 and 2. The reason I'm bringing this up is because I just finished reading Chapter 32 Comparison of the Cambridge Grammar and it says in section 32.6:
"Comparatives are usually construed with a genitive of comparison or with ἢ; in the latter case, the second member of the comparison (after ἢ) stands in the same case as the first."
...which I think is what's happening here. Does that make sense?
Statistics: Posted by Mitch — Thu May 16, 2024 6:49 pm