We mustn’t confuse the issues. There’s the εαν/αν spelling, and there’s the question of the semantics in various syntactic contexts. And there’s the question of textual corruption and “correction.” And the enquiry should not be limited to the NT, with or without the LXX.
It’s not clear what you mean when you say “it's only in this usage after relatives that it [εαν] shows up where you might not expect it.” Where you might not expect it, perhaps. And it’s hardly surprising if koine use of ὃς ἄν is not quite the same as Thucydides’s.
I think that’s enough from me on this. We’re now miles away from the original question, which I hope I dealt with satisfactorily.
Statistics: Posted by mwh — Tue Oct 01, 2024 3:12 pm