Ἐκβάτανα is Persian, not Greek, and the various transliterations are attempts at representing the Persian. No need to bring in ἐκβαίνω/ἀποβαίνω at all.I am inclining towards ψυχομαντεῖον as the meaning behind Ἐκβάτανα and 𐤀𐤇𐤌𐤕𐤀 ( ̓Αχαιμενίδες?) since …
In the LXX/Septuaginta one finds (examples just for Genesis and Exodus) a: [ανα μεσον + Gen.Sg.] (Ex. 26:10) b: [ανα μεσον + Gen.Pl.] ; (Ex. 22:10; 25:22; 26:28; 28:33; 36:32;Gen. 15:17; 31:37; 31:53; 42:23; 49:14c: [ανα μεσον + Gen. + Gen.] (Ex. 11:7…
Ah, thank you. I tried to find a little bit about him, but I was silly enough to think that Innsbruck was German, not Austrian.As I said, I liked his discussion best by far, though that Luke 23:31 citation remains very puzzling. Surely no one interpre…
I think that the reader is probably supposed to understand the imagined event as a type spoken persuasion. But all the Greek says is that the beast “will make them so they’ll get put to death”. It’s not precise. Did the author imagine the beast orderi…
Thanks for that. I need to have more thinking. Would you suggest that it could mean “force” the way some translations render it?I should clarify my argument; I’m not suggesting it is “more accurate” translation. It is prophetic language after all. I…
The INTF and the IGNTP both have a lot of manuscript-transcriptions, but it is not possible on their Websites to search a specific reading in all transcriptions.So I collected all available Transcripts of both institutes and built a kind of raw databa…
Instead of τυφών the better word might be συστροφή a sudden storm.Job 37:9ἀπὸ Ὑδρᾶς βαίνουσα συστροφή καὶ ἀπὸ Κυνοσούρας ψῦχος”From Hydra comes the storm and from Cynosura the cold”or / ἀπὸ Κυνοσούρας βορέᾱς “From Cynosura the north wind” ?Statistics:…
One word, two origins:1: Egyptian origin : = barge2; Indogermanic origin: = Castle, large house (cf. German “Burg”, Dutch: “burcht” = castle, stronghold)Not a rare phenomenon in languages.Statistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Wed Mar 27, 2024 5:32 am
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I got the above from the digitalized version in TLG, but you can see it on page 686 in the original Migne volume on the lower right of the page.Notice the [Sp.] in my citation. It is from the Spuria section of the Chrysostom volume. See page 675 for a…
Well, we’ve gotten to “demand back” and an implied subject at least, I should be happy…Is the agent really specifically conceived of as God in the Wisdom verse? The τὸ τῆς ψυχῆς ἀπαιτηθεὶς χρέος is even more similar than Luke 12:20 to τὸ τέλος ὁ χρό…
Our personal beliefs about God do not come to bear on understanding whether or not the language here is being used in a manner consistent with the worldview of the author. It is something that we expect to ask of any author, and it is not a religious …
Well, you’ve come across a good reason to know Greek. I wonder if this is a nasty case of Bible translators being in a rut because they look over each other’s shoulders for the hard bits? Though RSV and a few others are a bit more exact, I see. “…un…
βαρις and πυργόβαρις are only attested in the Septuagint and JosephusThe biggest difficulty with the word origin is that this isn’t true. The LSJ mentions the two authors in Herodianus, “λέγεται βάρις ἡ οἰκία, ὡς Ποσείδιππος, καὶ ἡ συνοικία ὡς Ἔφορος….
The Greek parallel that comes to mind for me is: “καὶ κατὰ γῆν καὶ κατὰ θάλατταν”. But the double-καί is necessary there.I see that when quoting these verses, many of the Greek writers like to drop the second ἀνὰ μέσον.For example, the non-Semitic Jul…
Even clearer would be Ecclesiastes 12:7, or Job 1:21: “καὶ τὸ πνεῦμα ἐπιστρέψῃ πρὸς τὸν θεόν, ὃς ἔδωκεν αὐτό”, or “αὐτὸς γυμνὸς ἐξῆλθον ἐκ κοιλίας μητρός μου, γυμνὸς καὶ ἀπελεύσομαι ἐκεῖ· ὁ κύριος ἔδωκεν, ὁ κύριος ἀφείλατο.” But God’s ultimate agency …
I got the above from the digitalized version in TLG, but you can see it on page 686 in the original Migne volume on the lower right of the page.Notice the [Sp.] in my citation. It is from the Spuria section of the Chrysostom volume. See page 675 for a…
The ZIP-file is also available at:https://github.com/JeanLCP/NT-GREEK-MS-TRANSCRIPTIONSStatistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Thu Feb 08, 2024 9:15 am
Thanks for the lengthy explanation. Merry Christmas!Statistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Sun Dec 24, 2023 5:36 pm
One of the main uses of ποιεῖν is to “cause” things to be in a certain state or to happen. The Greeks used it like that all the way back to Homer.ἡ δ’ οὔτ’ ἀρνεῖται στυγερὸν γάμον οὔτε τελευτὴν / ποιῆσαι δύναταιAnd she [Penelope] neither refuses the o…
Sorry for not being clearer, I wasn’t interested in how the Greek here is translated from the Hebrew, I just wanted to know more about the kind of grammatical constrction used in the sentence. And I just found theanswer: it’s a “causal clause” as desc…