Galatians 4:8

[bible passage=”Galatians 4:8″]

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4 thoughts on “Galatians 4:8

  1. ProBible says:

    I’ve received a few responses stating that it should be translated as “…by nature not gods…” because QEOIS is in the dative case, plural person. I agree that this is indeed a valid translation.

    My question regarding Galatians 4:8 relates to John 1:1 in this way.

    John 1:1c states, “…and the Word was God,” by the Greek KAI QEOS HN hO LOGOS.

    I don’t neex to explain this to anyone here, but I’m doing so for the sake of the discussion of my point. QEOS in John 1:1c is not referring to person, but as “nature” or “essence.” That is to say, it is not saying that the Word is the “God” whom he was “with” in John 1:1b, but rather, it is saying that the Word shares the same nature (being “God”) as the “God” whom he was with. Some say this is a “qualitative” usage of QEOS rather than definite (I think I got that right).

    With that being said, I’d just like to ask this question with respect to Gal. 4:8.

    If Paul wanted to write the following thought in Greek, how would he have written it in Greek?

    “But rather, then, when you truly did not know God, you did service to those who are by nature not God.”

    Thank you, Mike

  2. ProBible says:

    I’ve received a few responses stating that it should be translated as “…by nature not gods…” because QEOIS is in the dative case, plural person. I agree that this is indeed a valid translation.

    My question regarding Galatians 4:8 relates to John 1:1 in this way.

    John 1:1c states, “…and the Word was God,” by the Greek KAI QEOS HN hO LOGOS.

    I don’t neex to explain this to anyone here, but I’m doing so for the sake of the discussion of my point. QEOS in John 1:1c is not referring to person, but as “nature” or “essence.” That is to say, it is not saying that the Word is the “God” whom he was “with” in John 1:1b, but rather, it is saying that the Word shares the same nature (being “God”) as the “God” whom he was with. Some say this is a “qualitative” usage of QEOS rather than definite (I think I got that right).

    With that being said, I’d just like to ask this question with respect to Gal. 4:8.

    If Paul wanted to write the following thought in Greek, how would he have written it in Greek?

    “But rather, then, when you truly did not know God, you did service to those who are by nature not God.”

    Thank you, Mike

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