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1 Corinthians 11:33

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Dear list,   CAIREIN   I am trying to look at I Cor. 11:33 from every angle. If we focus on the infinitive, what is the purpose of EIS TO with purpose infinitive in this verse?  I was admonished by one grammar to not forget Meyer’s dictum that EIS with the articular infinitive is always telic. But is not the infinitive telic in this verse even without EIS TO?      1 COR.11:33 hWSTE, ADELFOI MOU,SUNERCOMENOI EIS TO FAGEIN ALLHLOUS EKDECESQE.   So then, my brethren, when you come together to eat, wait for one another. (NASB)   1 COR. 11:33 hWSTE, ADELFOI MOU, SUNERCOMENOI      FAGEIN       ALLHLOUS EKDECESQE.   So then, my brethren, when you come together to eat, wait for one another.   If that is the case, is it simply a matter of style, i.e. another way to say the same thing? Or could it be added to the simple infinitive to *emphasize* to the reader that their eating is the central reason for their getting together in the first place?   If this is true, it might shed light on the fact that the DIDACH  TWN  DWDEKA  APOSTOLWN considers such an occurrence an imperative.   KATA KURIAKHN DE KURIOU SUNACQENTES KLASATE ARTON KAI EUCARISTHSATE   (DIDACHE 14:1)   And on the Lord’s day, having been gathered together, break bread and give thanks   Secondly, how should we look at the participle? Is it possible that we might not have a temporal participle at all in this verse, but rather have a causal participle?   Therefore, my brethren, since you are assembling together to eat [the Lord’s Supper], be sure to wait for one another.   Or, if we do, indeed, have the temporal participle, is it possible that we might not have a purpose infinitive after all, (in spite of all we said above), but rather an infinitive of result ?   Therefore, my brethren, when you assemble together, wait for one another so that you can eat [the Lord’s Supper].

  Any help would be appreciated. It seems either view still fits in nicely with the context.   Sincerely, Blue Harris

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