John 5:8

John 5:8

John 5:8 ‘ᾶρον τὸν κράβαττόν σου καὶ περιπάτε and the obeyed commands follow the SAME tense distinction in verse 9, ‘ῆρε … και περιεπάτε.

Acts 12:8 …περιβαλοῦ τὸ ἱμάτιόν σου καὶ ἀκολύθει μοι…..ἐχελθὼν ἠκολούθει

I’m not sure how consistent this pattern is or if the same holds true for verbs of saying but it might and seems to in the verses Stephen Carlson brought to our attention:

Mark 11:3…ἐίπατε Ὁ κύριος αὐτοῦ χρείαν ἔχει, καὶ εὐθὺς αὐτὸν ἀποστέλλει πάλιν ὧδε. The imperfective is in view in both imperative and its fulfillment.

Matt. 21:3 …ἐρεῖτε (Future ἐρῶ) ὅτι Ὁ κύριος αὐτῶν χρείαν ἔχει• εὐθὺς δὲ ἀποστελεῖ αὐτούς. Here the imperative is in the future construction and so is fulfillment ἀποστελεῖ.

Immediacy is marked in both by εὐθὺς not necessarily by tense.

Scott Statistics: Posted by Scott Lawson — April 8th, 2012, 8:49 pm

/////////////////////////////////////////// Syntax and Grammar Re: Verbs of saying in the Imperative

Posted: 08 Apr 2012 12:24 PM PDT

Μὴ αποκρίθητε. Λογίζομαι γάρ απόκρισις καὶ ἐλπίζω ἀυτή λεγεῖν ὑμῖν.

I welcome corrections to my Greek though.

Scott Statistics: Posted by Scott Lawson — April 8th, 2012, 3:24 pm

/////////////////////////////////////////// Lexicons Exegetical Dictionary of the New Testament

Posted: 08 Apr 2012 12:12 PM PDT

Hi all,

Any thoughts on the usefulness of the Eerdmans Exegetical Dictionary of the New Testament? Statistics: Posted by jsandersonmdelp — April 8th, 2012, 3:12 pm

/////////////////////////////////////////// Syntax and Grammar Re: The Instantaneous Imperfect???

Posted: 08 Apr 2012 10:15 AM PDT

If one wishes to be pedantically literal, he would use a verb of saying here; however, considering the fact that this is within an ongoing speech, I would think that simply rendering it as “He continued …” might be quite proper. Statistics: Posted by George F Somsel — April 8th, 2012, 1:15 pm

/////////////////////////////////////////// Syntax and Grammar Re: The Instantaneous Imperfect???

Posted: 08 Apr 2012 07:08 AM PDT

Mark 4:9 καὶ ἔλεγεν· ὃς ἔχει ὦτα ἀκούειν ἀκουέτω. And he said, “Let the one who has ears to hear [with] listen!”

First, I see no reason for the [with] embedded into this statement. It makes perfect since in both Greek and English if left out. However, I would embed a word at the beginning. I would offer this translation:

And he was [heard] saying, “Let the one…”

This is a strong warning. He doesn’t just utter it one time. Note in verse 4:2 the imperfects; he was teaching many parables, and this warning was said over and over again, probably at the end of each parable. Statistics: Posted by Alan Patterson — April 8th, 2012, 10:08 am

2 thoughts on “John 5:8”

  1. Well, in this particular discussion we have:
    George F. Somsel, Greek professor emeritus
    Ken Litwak, Ph.D. in New Testament
    and Scott Lawson who translated for one of the Bible Societies back in the day. From what I read they know their Greek enough to discuss it…

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