Jude 9

Jude 9 (Archangel–First in command and/or time?) Grant grant at cajun.net
Wed Dec 22 18:37:57 EST 1999

 

Pronouns in John 1:1 and 1 John 1-4 John 8:58 This is something that I really never noticed until now that the term archangel is only found at Jude 9 and 1 Thessalonians 4:16.”ARXAGGELOS”Since it no doubt has the prefix “ARXH”, what can it this be interpreted to mean? Does it mean a) the highest ranking angel? (as I have learned it)orb) the first angel created who was thus made the highest rank?Are there other examples where ARXH is found as a prefix?sincerelygrant polle————– next part ————–An HTML attachment was scrubbed…URL: http://lists.ibiblio.org/pipermail//attachments/19991222/388487e6/attachment.html

 

Pronouns in John 1:1 and 1 John 1-4John 8:58

Jude 9 (Archangel–First in command and/or time?) Stevens, Charles C Charles.Stevens at unisys.com
Wed Dec 22 19:57:11 EST 1999

 

Pronouns in John 1:1 and 1 John 1:1-4 Jude 9 (Archangel–First in command and/or time?) Grant Polle wrote: <<Since it no doubt has the prefix “ARXH”,>> Ummm… That, as stated, is not a conclusion to which I am prepared to jump,much less one from which I am prepared to draw further conclusions! <<what can it this be interpreted to mean?>> The verb ARXW means “rule, reign”. The noun ARXWN means “ruler, prince,leader”. The noun ARXITRIKLINOS means “superintendent of a dining room”.In fact, in the plural the noun ARXH can mean “magistrates, rulers”. I think the prefix is better expressed “ARX-“, and I also am reasonablycertain that the *first* sense of this prefix is “primary, ranking, ruling”,and only secondarily “earliest in time”, and even then that latter senseseems at least in the NT and the LXX to be limited to the noun ARXH and theadjective ARXAIOS. Furthermore, I would suggest that ARXAIOS actually comesfrom ARX- and AION, in which case the sense of “time” is actually suppliedalmost exclusively by the root and not the prefix! <<a) the highest ranking angel? (as I have learned it)>> So it seems to me, and I see nothing that would lead me to believeotherwise. What lexicon are you using, and what does it say? <<Are there other examples where ARXH is used as a prefix?>> Well, not ARXH as such, but ARX, yes, a fair number, and more still in theLXX, all with the meaning “ranking, ruling, primary, chief, head”. -Chuck Stevens -Chuyc————– next part ————–An HTML attachment was scrubbed…URL: http://lists.ibiblio.org/pipermail//attachments/19991222/83f0864c/attachment.html

 

Pronouns in John 1:1 and 1 John 1:1-4Jude 9 (Archangel–First in command and/or time?)

Jude 9 (Archangel–First in command and/or time?) Bill Ross wross at farmerstel.com
Wed Dec 22 20:19:34 EST 1999

 

Jude 9 (Archangel–First in command and/or time?) John 8:58 <Grant>…<<a) the highest ranking angel? (as I have learned it)>>[Bill Ross]How fascinating language is, especially in the context of the Bible.The Hebrew word for “beginning” as in “in the beginning” from myunderstanding has a similar overlap of meaning: top/beginning.If I am not mistaken, Hebrew/Chaldee is considered to be great-grandparentto Greek somehow (via Babel, though) so there may be some echo…Also, there is a Biblical/Jewish relationship between that which comes firstand that which ranks higher:John 1 30 OUTOS ESTIN UPER OU EGW EIPON OPISW MOU ERCETAI ANHR OS EMPROSQENMOU GEGONEN OTI PRWTOS MOU HNBill Ross————– next part ————–An HTML attachment was scrubbed…URL: http://lists.ibiblio.org/pipermail//attachments/19991222/c4761a96/attachment.html

 

Jude 9 (Archangel–First in command and/or time?)John 8:58

Jude 9 (Archangel–First in command and/or time?) Steven Craig Miller scmiller at www.plantnet.com
Wed Dec 22 21:10:41 EST 1999

 

John 8:58 b-Greek To: Bill Ross,<< If I am not mistaken, Hebrew/Chaldee is considered to be great-grandparent to Greek somehow (via Babel, though) so there may be some echo… >>Actually, it is near impossible for there to be any direct relationship between Hebrew and Greek aside from the borrowing of terms. Most Greek roots are monosyllabic and most Hebrew roots are tri-consonantal. And so it is near impossible for the ancestor languages of Greek and Hebrew to have been related in any way, shape, or form. On the other hand there are a number of Semitic loan-words in pre-Hellenistic Greek. And, of course, it is well known that the Greeks borrowed their Alphabet from the Phoenicians (which was a Semitic source). For a good book on Near Eastern influence upon Greek culture, one should see Walter Burkert’s “The Orientalizing Revelution” (Harvard UP, 1992).-Steven Craig MillerAlton, Illinois (USA)scmiller at www.plantnet.comDisclaimer: “I’m just a simple house-husband (with no post-grad degree), what do I know?”

 

John 8:58b-Greek

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