I am curious as to whether or not PAS and POLUS are ever used interchangeably in the Greek New Testament. That is to say: Can these two words be used in such a manner that they both refer to the same referent? This seems to be the case in Romans 5:18-19. The Greek text is below:
Ἄρα οὖν ὡς δι᾽ ἑνὸς παραπτώματος εἰς
πάντας ἀνθρώπους εἰς κατάκριμα οὕτως καὶ δι᾽ ἑνὸς δικαιώματος εἰς
πάντας ἀνθρώπους εἰς δικαίωσιν ζωῆς
ὥσπερ γὰρ διὰ τῆς παρακοῆς τοῦ ἑνὸς ἀνθρώπου ἁμαρτωλοὶ κατεστάθησαν οἱ
πολλοί οὕτως καὶ διὰ τῆς ὑπακοῆς τοῦ ἑνὸς δίκαιοι κατασταθήσονται οἱ
PAS and POLUS seem to be used interchangeably between Mark 10:45 and 1 Tim. 2:6 as well:
καὶ γὰρ ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου οὐκ ἦλθεν διακονηθῆναι ἀλλὰ διακονῆσαι καὶ δοῦναι τὴν ψυχὴν αὐτοῦ λύτρον ἀντὶ πολλῶν
1 Tim. 2:6
ὁ δοὺς ἑαυτὸν ἀντίλυτρον ὑπὲρ πάντων τὸ μαρτύριον καιροῖς ἰδίοις
The reason I ask this is because I was recently involved in a discussion wherein the argument was made that because ‘many’ does not mean ‘all’, then the use of POLUS in Romans 5:19 necessarily limits the scope of PAS in v. 18.
Just wanted to get some feedback from the list.
Sam Cripps (layman)