The verb usage in Matt 16:19 Jay Adkins jayadkins264 at gmail.com Fri Jan 8 06:58:08 EST 2010  Accents & Breathing Marks in Codex SinaiticusandBeatty & Bodmer Papyrii? (was Re: In defense of “Orthography”)  The verb usage in Matt 16:19 Matt 16:19 (GNT) DWSO SOI KLEIDAS THS BASILEIAS TWN OURANWN, KAI O…
My rule of thumb is that if a verb is missing and it’s not in immediate parallelism with a preceding clause, try using a form of the verb εἶναι “to be.” That’s how some translations take it anyway.
Statistics: Posted by Stephen Carlson — March 12th, 2014, 1:36 am
Hi, I found an answer to my question, while scanning the thick grammar book by A. T. Robertson, p. 1184.
Sometimes a word is repeated with DE for special emphasis, as DIKAISUNH in Ro 3:22( cf. 9:30).
EQNH TA MH DIWKONTA DIKAIOSUNHN KATELABEN DIKAISUNHN, DIKAISUNHN DE THN EK PISTEWS.
So, if DE can introduce a phrase as Rom 9:30, the answer to my question is obvious.
Statistics: Posted by moon — June 10th, 2014, 7:52 am