John 8:32

Question on John 8:32, and parallels Robert W Meyers bwmeyers at juno.com
Mon Oct 25 07:04:00 EDT 1999

edwken ainon =gk? Virus Alert John 8:32 (KJV) And ye shall know the truth, and the truth shall makeyou free. Dr. Morris comments: This could be read, literally, “come to know.” Truefreedom results from continued study of the Scriptures and obedience tothem.This comment, by Morris, seems to solve all the problems I’ve had withthe passage. Is he correct?Thus, the Lord is not saying that one continuing in His Word already isfree from sin; but rather this continuance in His Word will result in acontinuing process of becoming more and more free from sin? Like 1 Peter2:2, “that ye may GROW thereby?”The latter interpretation certainly seems to fit reality, whereas theformer does not. But then, does not Romans 6:2,7 fit the former ratherthan the latter?Bob

edwken ainon =gk?Virus Alert

Question on John 8:32 Steven Craig Miller scmiller at www.plantnet.com
Tue Oct 26 08:27:07 EDT 1999

Virus Alert Question on John 8:32 To: Robert W Meyers,RWM: << Dr. Morris comments: This [Jn 8:32] could be read, literally, “come to know.” True freedom results from continued study of the Scriptures and obedience to them. >>I don’t see anything in chapter 8 of John which suggests anything about studying scriptures or obedience to them. As for the verb GNWSESQE, it is simply a future tense. BDF (sec. 348) suggests:<< … the future is the only tense which expresses only a level of time and not an ‘Aktionsart’ so that completed and durative action are not distinguished. >>And Buist M. Fanning [1990:123] writes:<< … the future must be taken as a non-aspectual ‘tense’-category, indicating occurrence ‘subsequent’ to some reference-point. >>Also, the translation “come to know” doesn’t seem to me to suggest anything different from the simple “know” in this circumstance.RWM: << Thus, the Lord is not saying that one continuing in His Word already is free from sin; but rather this continuance in His Word will result in a continuing process of becoming more and more free from sin? >>I don’t see that the Johannine Jesus is saying that at all. According to John, the Johannine Jesus was asked what he meant by saying “you will be made free.” The Johannine Jesus answers:”Very truly, I tell you, everyone who commits sin is a slave to sin. The slave does not have a permanent place in the household; the son has a place there forever. So if the Son makes you free, you will be free indeed” (John 8:34b-36 NRSV).There is no suggestion by the Johannine Jesus that emancipation is only partial and that one becomes part-slave yet part-free. The point seems to be very clear, if the “Son” makes you free, then you will no longer be a slave. The notion of a partial emancipation would seem to be foreign to the text.And as for the (supposed) parallels you listed (i.e., 1 Peter 2:2; Rom 6:2,7), it is not clear to me that the author of John had ever read either 1 Peter or Romans, or that either of these works were a direct influence upon the gospel of John.-Steven Craig MillerAlton, Illinois (USA)scmiller at www.plantnet.com”There are no ultimate sources of knowledge. Every source, every suggestion is welcome; and every source, every suggestion, is open to critical examination” (Karl Popper, “Conjectures and Refutations: The Growth of Scientific Knowledge,” 1963:27).

Virus AlertQuestion on John 8:32

Question on John 8:32 Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Tue Oct 26 08:49:02 EDT 1999

Question on John 8:32 Question on John 8:32 At 7:27 AM -0500 10/26/99, Steven Craig Miller wrote:>To: Robert W Meyers,> >And as for the (supposed) parallels you listed (i.e., 1 Peter 2:2; Rom>6:2,7), it is not clear to me that the author of John had ever read either>1 Peter or Romans, or that either of these works were a direct influence>upon the gospel of John.I’m afraid that both that original suggestion of parallels and the presentcomment on it fall into category of hermeneutical assumptions regarding howone may legitimately interpret a text in one document in terms ofsubstantive content of a text in another document. What I mean to say isthat this is a matter whereon there is, I would guess, considerabledifference of opinion among list-members, some holding that one should NOTadduce evidence for the meaning of a text within a particular author from adocument composed by another author, while others hold that any Biblicaltext may be used to interpret any other Biblical text. The question is onewe’ve had attention called to on more than one occasion recently: Howextensive is the CONTEXT within which a particular text may legitimately beinterpreted? And precisely that question is, I believe, a significant boneof contention between hermeneutical approaches of different individuals andgroups of our list-members. Let’s steer clear of that, shall we, please.Carl W. ConradCo-Chair, ListDepartment of Classics, Washington UniversityOne Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649cwconrad at artsci.wustl.eduWWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/

Question on John 8:32Question on John 8:32

Question on John 8:32 Steven Craig Miller scmiller at www.plantnet.com
Tue Oct 26 10:08:42 EDT 1999

Question on John 8:32 Off-Topic: Moscow To: Carl W. Conrad, and the list,SCM: << And as for the (supposed) parallels you listed (i.e., 1 Peter 2:2; Rom 6:2,7), it is not clear to me that the author of John had ever read either 1 Peter or Romans, or that either of these works were a direct influence upon the gospel of John. >>CWC: << Let’s steer clear of that, shall we, please. >>I apologize for raising an issue inappropriate for this list.-Steven Craig MillerAlton, IL (USA)scmiller at www.plantnet.com

Question on John 8:32Off-Topic: Moscow