An Exegetical Examination of John 4:2: The Agency of Baptism in Early Johannine Ministry
John 4:2 presents a significant parenthetical clarification within the narrative of Jesus’s early ministry, specifically concerning the administration of baptism. Following the statement in John 4:1 that Jesus was gaining and baptizing more disciples than John, verse 2 immediately qualifies this assertion. The exegetical issue lies in understanding the precise nuance of this clarification, particularly the role of καίτοιγε (kaitoi ge) and the imperfect tense ἐβάπτιζεν (ebaptizen), and its theological implications regarding Jesus’s personal involvement in ritual baptism versus the actions of his disciples. This verse serves to prevent potential misinterpretation of the broader narrative by specifying the agents of the baptismal practice attributed to Jesus’s burgeoning movement.
καίτοιγε Ἰησοῦς αὐτὸς οὐκ ἐβάπτιζεν ἀλλ᾽ οἱ μαθηταὶ αὐτοῦ.
Key differences with SBLGNT (2010):
- There are no textual differences between the Nestle 1904 edition and the SBLGNT (2010) for John 4:2. Both texts present the identical reading: καίτοιγε Ἰησοῦς αὐτὸς οὐκ ἐβάπτιζεν ἀλλ᾽ οἱ μαθηταὶ αὐτοῦ.
The textual tradition for John 4:2 is remarkably stable. The critical apparatus of the Nestle-Aland Novum Testamentum Graece, 28th edition (NA28), indicates no significant variants for this verse, confirming the consistency of the Greek text across major manuscript families. This stability suggests a robust transmission of the original reading, underscoring the authorial intent behind this parenthetical clarification.
Lexically, several terms warrant attention:
- καίτοιγε (kaitoi ge): This compound particle functions as a strong adversative or concessive conjunction. BDAG (s.v. καίτοιγε) defines it as “and yet indeed, although, nevertheless, notwithstanding,” emphasizing a contrast or qualification of a preceding statement. Its presence here introduces a clarification that limits or specifies the scope of the previous declaration (John 4:1) rather than directly contradicting it. The particle strengthens the concessive force of καίτοι, highlighting the certainty or undeniable nature of the subsequent statement.
- ἐβάπτιζεν (ebaptizen): This is the imperfect active indicative form of the verb βαπτίζω (baptizō). BDAG (s.v. βαπτίζω) primarily defines it as “to immerse, dip, bathe,” and in a religious context, “to baptize.” The imperfect tense is crucial here, denoting continuous, repeated, or customary action in the past. Thus, it signifies that Jesus “was not baptizing” or “did not customarily baptize” rather than a single instance. Theological Dictionary of the New Testament (Kittel, Vol. I, pp. 529-546) provides an extensive discussion of βαπτίζω, highlighting its Old Testament and intertestamental background in ritual purification and its New Testament development as a rite of initiation and identification with Christ. In John 4:2, the focus is on the administration of water baptism, distinct from the concept of baptism with the Holy Spirit.
- αὐτὸς (autos): The intensive pronoun “himself” (with Ἰησοῦς, “Jesus”) emphasizes that Jesus personally was not the agent of baptism. This contrasts sharply with “his disciples” (οἱ μαθηταὶ αὐτοῦ), clearly delineating the direct and indirect agents of the activity.
Translation Variants
with grammatical & rhetorical analysis
The grammatical structure of John 4:2, particularly the use of καίτοιγε and the imperfect tense, permits various translation approaches, each subtly emphasizing different aspects of the original Greek.
- Emphasis on the Concessive Clause and Personal Agency: A direct translation preserving the concessive particle and the emphatic pronoun would be: “Although, indeed, Jesus himself was not baptizing, but his disciples were.” This rendering highlights the strong contrast (καίτοιγε) between the implied expectation that Jesus would personally baptize, given the preceding verse, and the reality that his disciples performed the action. The imperfect tense “was not baptizing” accurately conveys the ongoing nature of Jesus’s non-involvement in the direct administration of water baptism. Rhetorically, this form serves as a corrective, ensuring the audience understands the precise division of labor.
- Focus on Clarification and Continuous Action: Another approach might prioritize the clarifying nature of the statement: “Yet, it was not Jesus himself who was baptizing, but his disciples.” This version uses “yet” to introduce the clarification and maintains the imperfect tense for continuous action. The rhetorical effect is a direct and immediate correction to any potential misunderstanding arising from John 4:1. It underscores that while the “Jesus movement” was baptizing, Jesus himself maintained a different operational role.
- Nuance of Exception and Delegation: A more interpretive translation could reflect the sense of exception or delegated authority: “(For) Jesus himself did not perform baptisms; rather, his disciples did.” While καίτοιγε is not typically translated as “for,” the parenthetical nature of the verse functions almost causally or explanatorily in relation to verse 1. The use of “did not perform baptisms” translates the imperfect tense as a customary past action, implying a consistent practice of delegation. This translation might be favored for its natural English flow and its clear articulation of the agency.
Each variant navigates the balance between literal fidelity to the Greek syntax and conveying the precise theological and historical clarification the Evangelist intends. The common thread is the clear distinction between Jesus’s personal actions and those of his followers in the act of water baptism.
Conclusions and Translation Suggestions
John 4:2 serves as an essential parenthetical note, preventing misattribution of the act of water baptism to Jesus personally, while still affirming that baptism was an integral part of the early ministry associated with him. The robust textual tradition, the strong concessive force of καίτοιγε, and the imperfect tense of ἐβάπτιζεν all converge to emphasize that Jesus consistently delegated this task to his disciples. This subtle distinction carries theological weight, perhaps foreshadowing Jesus’s unique role as the baptizer with the Holy Spirit (John 1:33) or highlighting the communal aspect of Christian initiation from its earliest stages.
- “Although, indeed, Jesus himself was not baptizing, but his disciples.” This translation maintains the strong concessive nuance of καίτοιγε and the direct implication of ongoing, delegated action.
- “And yet, Jesus personally was not the one baptizing; rather, his disciples were.” This option emphasizes the personal distinction (αὐτὸς) and uses a more idiomatic “was not the one” to convey the imperfect tense’s continuous action and the active agent.
- “Indeed, Jesus himself did not administer baptisms; instead, his disciples did.” This translation offers a more dynamic equivalent for ἐβάπτιζεν as “administer baptisms” and uses “indeed” for the strong clarifying tone of καίτοιγε, while clearly distinguishing the agents.
Dear List,
I have a question I hope someone can answer. John the Baptist, we know, would baptize anyone that came to him in repentance, whether they wished to become his disciple or not. However, with Jesus, is there any grammatical rule that would allow the thought to be communicated that Jesus was not baptizing any and all that came to him, but only those persons who wished to be his disciples? If MAQHTAI was in the accusative, I think such a thought could be sustained, but in the nominative???
Sincerely, Blue Harris
John 4:2 – καίτοιγε Ἰησοῦς αὐτὸς οὐκ ἐβάπτιζεν ἀλλʼ οἱ μαθηταὶ αὐτοῦ
Raymond Brown in his 2 vol commentary on the GoJ translated this as “n fact, however, it was not Jesus himself who baptized, but his disciples” and notes regarding the passage:
“2. not Jesus himself. This is clearly an attempt to modify 3:22, where it is said that Jesus did baptize, and serves as almost indisputable evidence of the presence of several hands in the composition of John. Perhaps the final redactor was afraid that the sectarians of John the Baptist would use Jesus’ baptizing as an argument that he was only an imitator of John the Baptist. The unusual word for “however” (kaitoi ge) may be another indication of a different hand.”
I don’t wish to get into the discussion of whether there was or was not more than one hand involved in the GoJ, but it seems clear that the idea contained in the passage is that it was the disciples who baptised (nominative case) and not the disciples who were baptised. george gfsomsel
Dear List,
I have a question I hope someone can answer. John the Baptist, we know, would baptize anyone that came to him in repentance, whether they wished to become his disciple or not. However, with Jesus, is there any grammatical rule that would allow the thought to be communicated that Jesus was not baptizing any and all that came to him, but only those persons who wished to be his disciples? If MAQHTAI was in the accusative, I think such a thought could be sustained, but in the nominative???
Sincerely, Blue Harris
John 4:2 – καίτοιγε Ἰησοῦς αὐτὸς οὐκ ἐβάπτιζεν ἀλλʼ οἱ μαθηταὶ αὐτοῦ
Raymond Brown in his 2 vol commentary on the GoJ translated this as “n fact, however, it was not Jesus himself who baptized, but his disciples” and notes regarding the passage:
“2. not Jesus himself. This is clearly an attempt to modify 3:22, where it is said that Jesus did baptize, and serves as almost indisputable evidence of the presence of several hands in the composition of John. Perhaps the final redactor was afraid that the sectarians of John the Baptist would use Jesus’ baptizing as an argument that he was only an imitator of John the Baptist. The unusual word for “however” (kaitoi ge) may be another indication of a different hand.”
I don’t wish to get into the discussion of whether there was or was not more than one hand involved in the GoJ, but it seems clear that the idea contained in the passage is that it was the disciples who baptised (nominative case) and not the disciples who were baptised. george gfsomsel