For this verse too, I am still quite ambivalent, unsure about the way the Greek syntax works. It seems to be possible to be "a greater amount than theirs" if the πλεῖον is the object of βάλλω, but coukd also be "more than they threw", if it is adverbial, and if comparative adverbs can refer to the subject of the verb, not just the lexical part of the verb. Statistics: Posted by Stephen Hughes — November 24th, 2016, 6:09 amStephen Hughes wrote: Mk.12:43 has πλεῖον πάντων "more than all these other people (gave)".
Not "interpret", no, that sounds way more serious than I take myself, perhaps, "toying with the idea that it might be" would be closer to the mark. The form of πλεῖον in Mt. 12:42 & Lk. 11:31a difficult to explain neuter. Statistics: Posted by Stephen Hughes — November 24th, 2016, 5:47 amEeli Kaikkonen wrote: "καὶ ἰδοὺ πλεῖον Σολομῶνος ὧδε". So you interpret ἰδοὺ here as "look at" or "see", not as an interjection like (all?) the translations do?
If πλεῖον τούτων is an adverbial, is the nature of its adverbiality affected by the transitivity of the verb to which it is associated? Statistics: Posted by Stephen Hughes — November 24th, 2016, 5:31 am
"καὶ ἰδοὺ πλεῖον Σολομῶνος ὧδε". So you interpret ἰδοὺ here as "look at" or "see", not as an interjection like (all?) the translations do? NET: "and now, something greater than Solomon is here!" ESV: "and behold, something greater than Solomon is here." NLT: "Now someone greater than Solomon is here" NRSV: "and see, something greater than Solomon is here!" NIV: "and now something greater than Solomon is here." (As usually in this forum, we don't discuss about the translations or take them as the final authority, I just require proof if someone disagrees with all of them.) Statistics: Posted by Eeli Kaikkonen — November 24th, 2016, 5:08 am
I'm sorry, but in keeping the New Testament order of the Greek example verses, I have inadvertantly chiasmed them. πλεῖον Σολομῶνος is accusative, after ιδου, perhaps. Statistics: Posted by Stephen Hughes — November 24th, 2016, 3:57 am
In your second option τουτοι works as kind of an object (parallel to the accusative object), unlike in the examples you gave. You should find an example where πλειον+gen. works similarly. Statistics: Posted by Eeli Kaikkonen — November 23rd, 2016, 6:28 pm
In the well known first question, ἀγαπᾷς με πλεῖον τούτων; is there an indication in the form of πλεῖον or somewhere else as to whether the phrase means:
- Do YOU love me more than these other disciples do? OR
- Do you love ME more than you love these other disciples?
It’s no wonder Peter had so much trouble. He was Jonah’s son. That explains a lot. No wonder he was always in trouble. The Bible is easy to understand. You don’t have to have them thermal newtics.
It’s no wonder Peter had so much trouble. He was Jonah’s son. That explains a lot. No wonder he was always in trouble. The Bible is easy to understand. You don’t have to have them thermal newtics.