An Exegetical Analysis of The Intensive Function of ἀνήρ in Acts 22:3
This exegetical study of The Intensive Function of ἀνήρ in Acts 22:3 is based on a b-greek discussion from an unspecified date, originally concerning the phrase ἐγώ εἰμι ἀνὴρ Ἰουδαῖος found in Acts 22:3. The discussion originated from an observation regarding the varied English translations of ἐγώ εἰμι and the specific challenge of rendering ἀνήρ in Paul’s self-identification. It notes that while ἐγώ εἰμι can convey meanings from “It is I” to “I am,” the term ἀνήρ, when present, is often omitted or its intensifying force diluted in modern English versions, contrasting with more literal or older translations which sometimes attempted to preserve its presence.
The main exegetical issue is to determine the precise semantic function of ἀνήρ in Paul’s self-declaration in Acts 22:3, specifically whether it serves as a mere pleonasm, an emphatic intensifier of his identity as a Jew, or carries additional nuanced meaning related to his social standing or gender. The challenge lies in translating this nuance into English without resorting to overly literal or archaic phrasing, which often obscures the natural flow of modern discourse and the potential rhetorical impact Paul intended for his audience.
ἐγώ εἰμι ἀνὴρ Ἰουδαῖος, γεγεννημένος ἐν Ταρσῷ τῆς Κιλικίας, ἀνατεθραμμένος δὲ ἐν τῇ πόλει ταύτῃ παρὰ τοὺς πόδας Γαμαλιήλ, πεπαιδευμένος κατὰ ἀκρίβειαν τοῦ πατρῴου νόμου, ζηλωτὴς ὑπάρχων τοῦ Θεοῦ, καθὼς πάντες ὑμεῖς ἐστε σήμερον. (Acts 22:3, Nestle 1904)
Key differences with SBLGNT (2010):
- No textual differences are observed in the phrase ἐγώ εἰμι ἀνὴρ Ἰουδαῖος between Nestle 1904 and SBLGNT (2010).
- SBLGNT (2010) uses lowercase θεοῦ where Nestle 1904 uses uppercase Θεοῦ (for “God”) later in the verse.
From a textual critical perspective, the NA28 concurs with Nestle 1904 and SBLGNT in offering no significant textual variants affecting the phrase ἐγώ εἰμι ἀνὴρ Ἰουδαῖος. Lexical analysis provides further insight into the term ἀνήρ. According to BDAG, ἀνήρ primarily denotes a “man, male human being,” often in contrast to γυνή (woman), but it can also refer to “a man (of a certain kind), a fellow” when used with a descriptive adjective, as in ἀνὴρ Ἰουδαῖος. This usage suggests more than a simple declaration of gender; it implies a specific quality or status associated with being a man of that type. KITTEL (TDNT) elaborates on ἀνήρ as signifying a mature, responsible male, often emphasizing social standing, moral character, or ethnic identity. Its inclusion in self-declarations, therefore, is rarely purely pleonastic but can imbue the statement with a sense of “a man, indeed” or “a true man” of a specific category, adding weight or solemnity to the speaker’s assertion of identity.
Translation Variants
The phrase ἐγώ εἰμι ἀνὴρ Ἰουδαῖος is grammatically structured with ἐγώ (I) as the subject, εἰμι (am) as the verb, and ἀνήρ (man) as a predicate nominative. Ἰουδαῖος (Jew) functions as an adjective modifying ἀνήρ, together forming a compound predicate. The literal rendering, “I am a man, a Jew,” is grammatically sound but often sounds somewhat redundant or archaic in modern English, prompting translators to seek more idiomatic expressions.
Rhetorically, Paul’s choice to use ἀνήρ in this context (Acts 22:3) is significant. He is addressing a hostile Jewish crowd in Jerusalem (Acts 22:1-2), and his opening words aim to establish common ground and his credibility. By declaring “ἐγώ εἰμι ἀνὴρ Ἰουδαῖος” instead of simply “ἐγώ εἰμι Ἰουδαῖος,” Paul likely emphasizes several points:
- Emphasis on Male Status: In a male-dominated society, asserting one’s identity as a “man” (ἀνήρ) would underscore his full participation and standing within the community, distinct from a woman or child. This highlights his authority to speak and his adherence to the male-specific obligations of the Law.
- Intensification and Solemnity: The use of ἀνήρ can function as an intensifier, akin to saying “I am indeed a Jew” or “I am truly a Jew.” This adds weight and solemnity to his declaration, presenting his Jewish identity not merely as a fact but as a foundational and serious aspect of his being, a precursor to his detailed account of his Jewish credentials (born in Tarsus, educated by Gamaliel, zealous for the Law).
- Rhetorical Alignment: Having just addressed his audience as “Men, brothers, and fathers” (ἄνδρες ἀδελφοὶ καὶ πατέρες, Acts 22:1), Paul’s use of ἀνήρ in his self-description aligns him directly with the respected male members of the assembly, further strengthening his appeal.
Modern translations often omit a distinct English equivalent for ἀνήρ, opting for “I am a Jew” (e.g., NIV, ESV, NASB). While fluent, this decision inherently diminishes the potential emphatic or qualitative nuance that the Greek term might carry, as noted in the original discussion.
Conclusions and Translation Suggestions
In conclusion, the presence of ἀνήρ in Acts 22:3 is unlikely to be a mere pleonasm. Instead, it serves a rhetorical purpose, emphasizing Paul’s full male status within the Jewish community and lending a solemn, emphatic quality to his declaration of Jewish identity. This choice underpins his authority to address the crowd and bolsters his credentials among his compatriots. Translators must weigh the desire for natural English against the potential loss of this nuanced emphasis.
- “I am a man, a Jew.”
This translation is the most literal, preserving the distinct elements of Paul’s self-identification. While it might sound slightly formal or less natural in contemporary English, it accurately reflects the explicit inclusion of ἀνήρ. - “I am indeed a Jew.”
This option captures the intensifying force of ἀνήρ through an adverb, prioritizing natural English while still acknowledging the emphasis Paul places on his identity. It conveys that his Jewishness is an undeniable and significant aspect of his being. - “I am a true Jew.”
This translation emphasizes the authenticity and full credentials implied by ἀνήρ in this context, highlighting Paul’s male, adult standing and his deep commitment to his Jewish heritage. It suggests Paul is not just a Jew, but a quintessential example of one, aligning with his subsequent defense.
I suppose the way you translate it would depend upon how insistent you are regarding translating a passage in a formally equivalent manner. You could translate it as “I am a male Jew.” I’m not convinced that it really makes any difference. george gfsomsel
… search for truth, hear truth, learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth, defend the truth till death.
– Jan Hus _________
________________________________ href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] Sent: Tue, November 23, 2010 4:56:22 PM
I’ve see EGW EIMI carrying the following different meanings in English: – It is I – – I am he – – I am –
This last dissipates the intensity of the Greek, but is understandable in a popular language translation. What I’m trying to figure out, though, is just what Paul was trying ot convey with ANHR in EGW EIMI ANHR IOUDAIOS. Some of the more expanded or literal translations render it “I am indeed a Jew” but no modern translation seems to find a way of independently expressing the intensity
behind the word ANHR–they all treat the word as if it were not even there. Even Shakespeare had Shylock state simply “I am a Jew” (as most English translations of Acts 22:3) when the English Bible of his day used a full nine English words to translate the four Greek ones.
Are there other examples in Greek literature where ANHR is used to further intensify EGW EIMI? Any ideas on how to convey that into English–other than literally, of course?
Daniel Buck
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
George,
You’re not convinced that it really makes any difference; Obviously, neither are most Bible translators. But somehow I’m not at all comfortable with the idea that EGW EIMI ANHR IOUDAIOS means no more than EIMI IOUDAIOS. And his audience could see that he was a male; it’s not that he was seeking to convey that as simply obvious information. ANER isn’t particularly the word for ‘male’ anyway. Words have meaning, or they wouldn’t be used. The task of the translator is to somehow extract that meaning and convey it in words used by a different language. I don’t see that happening, and I just wonder if there’s any justification for that elsewhere in the Greek literature.
I would add that ANER is often used in Acts as some sort of intensifier, and rarely conveyed in translation. It would appear that Luke knew something about Hebrew-influenced Greek that we don’t.
Daniel Buck
________________________________ Sent: Tue, November 23, 2010 7:45:02 PM
I suppose the way you translate it would depend upon how insistent you are regarding translating a passage in a formally equivalent manner. You could translate it as “I am a male Jew.” I’m not convinced that it really makes any difference. george gfsomsel
________________________________ From: Daniel Buck Sent: Tue, November 23, 2010 4:56:22 PM
I’ve see EGW EIMI carrying the following different meanings in English: – It is I – – I am he – – I am –
This last dissipates the intensity of the Greek, but is understandable in a popular language translation. What I’m trying to figure out, though, is just what Paul was trying ot convey with ANHR in EGW EIMI ANHR IOUDAIOS. Some of the more expanded or literal translations render it “I am indeed a Jew” but no modern translation seems to find a way of independently expressing the intensity
behind the word ANHR–they all treat the word as if it were not even there. Even Shakespeare had Shylock state simply “I am a Jew” (as most English translations of Acts 22:3) when the English Bible of his day used a full nine English words to translate the four Greek ones.
Are there other examples in Greek literature where ANHR is used to further intensify EGW EIMI? Any ideas on how to convey that into English–other than literally, of course?
Daniel Buck
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
②equiv. to Arndt, William, Frederick W. Danker and Walter Bauer. A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature. 3rd ed. s.v. ἁνήρ. Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 2000.
george gfsomsel
… search for truth, hear truth, learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth, defend the truth till death.
– Jan Hus _________
________________________________ href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] Sent: Wed, November 24, 2010 6:59:03 AM
George,
You’re not convinced that it really makes any difference; Obviously, neither are
most Bible translators. But somehow I’m not at all comfortable with the idea that EGW EIMI ANHR IOUDAIOS means no more than EIMI IOUDAIOS. And his audience could see that he was a male; it’s not that he was seeking to convey that as simply obvious information. ANER isn’t particularly the word for ‘male’ anyway. Words have meaning, or they wouldn’t be used. The task of the translator is to somehow extract that meaning and convey it in words used by a different language. I don’t see that happening, and I just wonder if there’s any justification for that elsewhere in the Greek literature.
I would add that ANER is often used in Acts as some sort of intensifier, and rarely conveyed in translation. It would appear that Luke knew something about Hebrew-influenced Greek that we don’t.
Daniel Buck
________________________________ href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] Sent: Tue, November 23, 2010 7:45:02 PM
I suppose the way you translate it would depend upon how insistent you are regarding translating a passage in a formally equivalent manner. You could translate it as “I am a male Jew.” I’m not convinced that it really makes any difference. george gfsomsel
________________________________ href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] Sent: Tue, November 23, 2010 4:56:22 PM
I’ve see EGW EIMI carrying the following different meanings in English: – It is I – – I am he – – I am –
This last dissipates the intensity of the Greek, but is understandable in a popular language translation. What I’m trying to figure out, though, is just what Paul was trying ot convey with ANHR in EGW EIMI ANHR IOUDAIOS. Some of the more expanded or literal translations render it “I am indeed a Jew” but no modern translation seems to find a way of independently expressing the intensity
behind the word ANHR–they all treat the word as if it were not even there. Even Shakespeare had Shylock state simply “I am a Jew” (as most English translations of Acts 22:3) when the English Bible of his day used a full nine English words to translate the four Greek ones.
Are there other examples in Greek literature where ANHR is used to further intensify EGW EIMI? Any ideas on how to convey that into English–other than literally, of course?
Daniel Buck
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek τὶςsomeone, a person(Theognis 1, 199 Diehl2; X., Cyr. 2, 2, 22; Sir 27:7) Lk 9:38; 19:2; J 1:30; Ro 4:8 (Ps 32:2). Pl. some people (1 Macc 12:1; 13:34; Just., D. 108, 2 al.) Lk 5:18; Ac 6:11. ἀνήρ τιςLk 8:27; Ac 10:1. ἀνὴρ ὅςLat. is qui (like אִישׁ אֲשֶׁר; cp. 1 Macc 7:7; PsSol 6:1; 10:1 and as early as Pind., P. 9, 87 ἀνήρ τις, ὸ̔ς…); Js 1:12. οἱ κατʼ ἄνδρα(Dio Chrys. 15 [32], 6; cp. κατʼ ἄνδρα καὶ οἶκονPsSol 9:5) man for man, individually IEph 4:2 (of presbyters, but s. JKleist, note ad loc., rank and file); 20:2; ITr 13:2; ISm 5:1; 12:2; IPol 1:3.
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
Let’s try that one more time. It seems that I’m having problems with copying and pasting. ②equiv. to Arndt, William, Frederick W. Danker and Walter Bauer. A Greek-English Lexicon of
the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature. 3rd ed. s.v. ἁνήρ. Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 2000.
george gfsomsel
… search for truth, hear truth, learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth, defend the truth till death.
– Jan Hus _________
________________________________ href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] Sent: Wed, November 24, 2010 7:12:39 AM
②equiv. to Arndt, William, Frederick W. Danker and Walter Bauer. A Greek-English Lexicon of
the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature. 3rd ed. s.v. ἁνήρ. Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 2000.
george gfsomsel
… search for truth, hear truth, learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth, defend the truth till death.
– Jan Hus _________
________________________________ href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] Sent: Wed, November 24, 2010 6:59:03 AM
George,
You’re not convinced that it really makes any difference; Obviously, neither are
most Bible translators. But somehow I’m not at all comfortable with the idea that EGW EIMI ANHR IOUDAIOS means no more than EIMI IOUDAIOS. And his audience could see that he was a male; it’s not that he was seeking to convey that as simply obvious information. ANER isn’t particularly the word for ‘male’ anyway. Words have meaning, or they wouldn’t be used. The task of the translator is to somehow extract that meaning and convey it in words used by a different language. I don’t see that happening, and I just wonder if there’s any justification for that elsewhere in the Greek literature.
I would add that ANER is often used in Acts as some sort of intensifier, and rarely conveyed in translation. It would appear that Luke knew something about Hebrew-influenced Greek that we don’t.
Daniel Buck
________________________________ href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] Sent: Tue, November 23, 2010 7:45:02 PM
I suppose the way you translate it would depend upon how insistent you are regarding translating a passage in a formally equivalent manner. You could translate it as “I am a male Jew.” I’m not convinced that it really makes any difference. george gfsomsel
________________________________ href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] Sent: Tue, November 23, 2010 4:56:22 PM
I’ve see EGW EIMI carrying the following different meanings in English: – It is I – – I am he – – I am –
This last dissipates the intensity of the Greek, but is understandable in a popular language translation. What I’m trying to figure out, though, is just what Paul was trying ot convey with ANHR in EGW EIMI ANHR IOUDAIOS. Some of the more expanded or literal translations render it “I am indeed a Jew” but no modern translation seems to find a way of independently expressing the intensity
behind the word ANHR–they all treat the word as if it were not even there. Even Shakespeare had Shylock state simply “I am a Jew” (as most English translations of Acts 22:3) when the English Bible of his day used a full nine English words to translate the four Greek ones.
Are there other examples in Greek literature where ANHR is used to further intensify EGW EIMI? Any ideas on how to convey that into English–other than literally, of course?
Daniel Buck
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek τὶςsomeone, a person(Theognis 1, 199 Diehl2; X., Cyr. 2, 2, 22; Sir 27:7) Lk 9:38; 19:2; J 1:30; Ro 4:8 (Ps 32:2). Pl. some people (1 Macc 12:1; 13:34; Just., D. 108, 2 al.) Lk 5:18; Ac 6:11. ἀνήρ τιςLk 8:27; Ac 10:1. ἀνὴρ ὅςLat. is
qui (like אִישׁ אֲשֶׁר; cp. 1 Macc 7:7; PsSol 6:1; 10:1 and as early as Pind., P. 9, 87 ἀνήρ τις, ὸ̔ς…); Js 1:12. οἱ κατʼ ἄνδρα(Dio Chrys. 15 [32], 6; cp. κατʼ
ἄνδρα καὶ οἶκονPsSol 9:5) man for man, individually IEph 4:2 (of presbyters, but
s. JKleist, note ad loc., rank and file); 20:2; ITr 13:2; ISm 5:1; 12:2; IPol 1:3.
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek τὶς TIS someone, a person(Theognis 1, 199 Diehl2; X., Cyr. 2, 2, 22; Sir 27:7) Lk 9:38; 19:2; J 1:30; Ro 4:8 (Ps 32:2). Pl. some people (1 Macc 12:1; 13:34; Just., D. 108, 2 al.) Lk 5:18; Ac 6:11. ἀνήρ τις ANHR TIS Lk 8:27; Ac 10:1. ἀνὴρ ὅς ANHR hOS Lat. is qui (like אִישׁ אֲשֶׁר; )iY$ )$eR cp. 1 Macc 7:7; PsSol 6:1; 10:1 and as early as Pind., P. 9, 87 ἀνήρ τις, ὸ̔ς… ANHR TIS, hOS); Js 1:12. οἱ κατʼ ἄνδρα hOI KAT’ ANDRA (Dio Chrys. 15 [32], 6; cp. κατʼ ἄνδρα καὶ οἶκον KAT’ ANDRA KAI OIKON PsSol 9:5) man for man, individually IEph 4:2 (of presbyters, but s. JKleist, note ad loc., rank and file); 20:2; ITr 13:2; ISm 5:1; 12:2; IPol 1:3.
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
—– Original Message —– Sent: 24. november 2010 02:56
I cannot figure out why you think ANHR intensifies EGW EIMI. It is true that “I” is somewhat stressed, but that is because he starts his defense, so the topic of his defense is himself.
IOUDAIOS is an adjective – Jewish – rather than a noun – Jew. You can have a Jewish country (CWRA), a Jewish land (GH), a Jewish man (ANHR, Acts 10:28, 13:6), a Jewish woman (Act 16:1), a Jewish chief priest (Acts 19:14), a Jewish ANQRWPOS (Acts 21:39). Sometimes the adjective is used substantively, but it is still an adjective. Luke prefers to have a noun with the adjective, and some of these may be influenced by a Semitic expression. Paul was speaking Hebrew here (ish yehudi).
You could translate it by “I am a Jewish man” as opposed to an Egyptian man or a Greek man, but it is more natural in English just to say “I am a Jew”. And if there was focus on his Jewishness, the text should have been something like EGW EIMI IOUDAIOS (ANHR). If contrastive, ANHR would probably not be present.
Compare also Acts 21:39 Ἐγὼ ἄνθρωπος μέν εἰμι Ἰουδαῖος EGW ANQRWPOS MEN EIMI IOUDAIOS
At least KJV does not here say: “I am indeed a person”.
Iver Larsen
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
I suppose the way you translate it would depend upon how insistent you are regarding translating a passage in a formally equivalent manner. You could translate it as “I am a male Jew.” I’m not convinced that it really makes any difference. george gfsomsel
… search for truth, hear truth, learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth, defend the truth till death.
– Jan Hus _________
________________________________ href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] Sent: Tue, November 23, 2010 4:56:22 PM
I’ve see EGW EIMI carrying the following different meanings in English: – It is I – – I am he – – I am –
This last dissipates the intensity of the Greek, but is understandable in a popular language translation. What I’m trying to figure out, though, is just what Paul was trying ot convey with ANHR in EGW EIMI ANHR IOUDAIOS. Some of the more expanded or literal translations render it “I am indeed a Jew” but no modern translation seems to find a way of independently expressing the intensity
behind the word ANHR–they all treat the word as if it were not even there. Even Shakespeare had Shylock state simply “I am a Jew” (as most English translations of Acts 22:3) when the English Bible of his day used a full nine English words to translate the four Greek ones.
Are there other examples in Greek literature where ANHR is used to further intensify EGW EIMI? Any ideas on how to convey that into English–other than literally, of course?
Daniel Buck
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
George,
You’re not convinced that it really makes any difference; Obviously, neither are most Bible translators. But somehow I’m not at all comfortable with the idea that EGW EIMI ANHR IOUDAIOS means no more than EIMI IOUDAIOS. And his audience could see that he was a male; it’s not that he was seeking to convey that as simply obvious information. ANER isn’t particularly the word for ‘male’ anyway. Words have meaning, or they wouldn’t be used. The task of the translator is to somehow extract that meaning and convey it in words used by a different language. I don’t see that happening, and I just wonder if there’s any justification for that elsewhere in the Greek literature.
I would add that ANER is often used in Acts as some sort of intensifier, and rarely conveyed in translation. It would appear that Luke knew something about Hebrew-influenced Greek that we don’t.
Daniel Buck
________________________________ Sent: Tue, November 23, 2010 7:45:02 PM
I suppose the way you translate it would depend upon how insistent you are regarding translating a passage in a formally equivalent manner. You could translate it as “I am a male Jew.” I’m not convinced that it really makes any difference. george gfsomsel
________________________________ From: Daniel Buck Sent: Tue, November 23, 2010 4:56:22 PM
I’ve see EGW EIMI carrying the following different meanings in English: – It is I – – I am he – – I am –
This last dissipates the intensity of the Greek, but is understandable in a popular language translation. What I’m trying to figure out, though, is just what Paul was trying ot convey with ANHR in EGW EIMI ANHR IOUDAIOS. Some of the more expanded or literal translations render it “I am indeed a Jew” but no modern translation seems to find a way of independently expressing the intensity
behind the word ANHR–they all treat the word as if it were not even there. Even Shakespeare had Shylock state simply “I am a Jew” (as most English translations of Acts 22:3) when the English Bible of his day used a full nine English words to translate the four Greek ones.
Are there other examples in Greek literature where ANHR is used to further intensify EGW EIMI? Any ideas on how to convey that into English–other than literally, of course?
Daniel Buck
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
②equiv. to Arndt, William, Frederick W. Danker and Walter Bauer. A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature. 3rd ed. s.v. ἁνήρ. Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 2000.
george gfsomsel
… search for truth, hear truth, learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth, defend the truth till death.
– Jan Hus _________
________________________________ href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] Sent: Wed, November 24, 2010 6:59:03 AM
George,
You’re not convinced that it really makes any difference; Obviously, neither are
most Bible translators. But somehow I’m not at all comfortable with the idea that EGW EIMI ANHR IOUDAIOS means no more than EIMI IOUDAIOS. And his audience could see that he was a male; it’s not that he was seeking to convey that as simply obvious information. ANER isn’t particularly the word for ‘male’ anyway. Words have meaning, or they wouldn’t be used. The task of the translator is to somehow extract that meaning and convey it in words used by a different language. I don’t see that happening, and I just wonder if there’s any justification for that elsewhere in the Greek literature.
I would add that ANER is often used in Acts as some sort of intensifier, and rarely conveyed in translation. It would appear that Luke knew something about Hebrew-influenced Greek that we don’t.
Daniel Buck
________________________________ href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] Sent: Tue, November 23, 2010 7:45:02 PM
I suppose the way you translate it would depend upon how insistent you are regarding translating a passage in a formally equivalent manner. You could translate it as “I am a male Jew.” I’m not convinced that it really makes any difference. george gfsomsel
________________________________ href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] Sent: Tue, November 23, 2010 4:56:22 PM
I’ve see EGW EIMI carrying the following different meanings in English: – It is I – – I am he – – I am –
This last dissipates the intensity of the Greek, but is understandable in a popular language translation. What I’m trying to figure out, though, is just what Paul was trying ot convey with ANHR in EGW EIMI ANHR IOUDAIOS. Some of the more expanded or literal translations render it “I am indeed a Jew” but no modern translation seems to find a way of independently expressing the intensity
behind the word ANHR–they all treat the word as if it were not even there. Even Shakespeare had Shylock state simply “I am a Jew” (as most English translations of Acts 22:3) when the English Bible of his day used a full nine English words to translate the four Greek ones.
Are there other examples in Greek literature where ANHR is used to further intensify EGW EIMI? Any ideas on how to convey that into English–other than literally, of course?
Daniel Buck
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek τὶςsomeone, a person(Theognis 1, 199 Diehl2; X., Cyr. 2, 2, 22; Sir 27:7) Lk 9:38; 19:2; J 1:30; Ro 4:8 (Ps 32:2). Pl. some people (1 Macc 12:1; 13:34; Just., D. 108, 2 al.) Lk 5:18; Ac 6:11. ἀνήρ τιςLk 8:27; Ac 10:1. ἀνὴρ ὅςLat. is qui (like אִישׁ אֲשֶׁר; cp. 1 Macc 7:7; PsSol 6:1; 10:1 and as early as Pind., P. 9, 87 ἀνήρ τις, ὸ̔ς…); Js 1:12. οἱ κατʼ ἄνδρα(Dio Chrys. 15 [32], 6; cp. κατʼ ἄνδρα καὶ οἶκονPsSol 9:5) man for man, individually IEph 4:2 (of presbyters, but s. JKleist, note ad loc., rank and file); 20:2; ITr 13:2; ISm 5:1; 12:2; IPol 1:3.
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
Let’s try that one more time. It seems that I’m having problems with copying and pasting. ②equiv. to Arndt, William, Frederick W. Danker and Walter Bauer. A Greek-English Lexicon of
the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature. 3rd ed. s.v. ἁνήρ. Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 2000.
george gfsomsel
… search for truth, hear truth, learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth, defend the truth till death.
– Jan Hus _________
________________________________ href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] Sent: Wed, November 24, 2010 7:12:39 AM
②equiv. to Arndt, William, Frederick W. Danker and Walter Bauer. A Greek-English Lexicon of
the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature. 3rd ed. s.v. ἁνήρ. Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 2000.
george gfsomsel
… search for truth, hear truth, learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth, defend the truth till death.
– Jan Hus _________
________________________________ href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] Sent: Wed, November 24, 2010 6:59:03 AM
George,
You’re not convinced that it really makes any difference; Obviously, neither are
most Bible translators. But somehow I’m not at all comfortable with the idea that EGW EIMI ANHR IOUDAIOS means no more than EIMI IOUDAIOS. And his audience could see that he was a male; it’s not that he was seeking to convey that as simply obvious information. ANER isn’t particularly the word for ‘male’ anyway. Words have meaning, or they wouldn’t be used. The task of the translator is to somehow extract that meaning and convey it in words used by a different language. I don’t see that happening, and I just wonder if there’s any justification for that elsewhere in the Greek literature.
I would add that ANER is often used in Acts as some sort of intensifier, and rarely conveyed in translation. It would appear that Luke knew something about Hebrew-influenced Greek that we don’t.
Daniel Buck
________________________________ href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] Sent: Tue, November 23, 2010 7:45:02 PM
I suppose the way you translate it would depend upon how insistent you are regarding translating a passage in a formally equivalent manner. You could translate it as “I am a male Jew.” I’m not convinced that it really makes any difference. george gfsomsel
________________________________ href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] Sent: Tue, November 23, 2010 4:56:22 PM
I’ve see EGW EIMI carrying the following different meanings in English: – It is I – – I am he – – I am –
This last dissipates the intensity of the Greek, but is understandable in a popular language translation. What I’m trying to figure out, though, is just what Paul was trying ot convey with ANHR in EGW EIMI ANHR IOUDAIOS. Some of the more expanded or literal translations render it “I am indeed a Jew” but no modern translation seems to find a way of independently expressing the intensity
behind the word ANHR–they all treat the word as if it were not even there. Even Shakespeare had Shylock state simply “I am a Jew” (as most English translations of Acts 22:3) when the English Bible of his day used a full nine English words to translate the four Greek ones.
Are there other examples in Greek literature where ANHR is used to further intensify EGW EIMI? Any ideas on how to convey that into English–other than literally, of course?
Daniel Buck
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek τὶςsomeone, a person(Theognis 1, 199 Diehl2; X., Cyr. 2, 2, 22; Sir 27:7) Lk 9:38; 19:2; J 1:30; Ro 4:8 (Ps 32:2). Pl. some people (1 Macc 12:1; 13:34; Just., D. 108, 2 al.) Lk 5:18; Ac 6:11. ἀνήρ τιςLk 8:27; Ac 10:1. ἀνὴρ ὅςLat. is
qui (like אִישׁ אֲשֶׁר; cp. 1 Macc 7:7; PsSol 6:1; 10:1 and as early as Pind., P. 9, 87 ἀνήρ τις, ὸ̔ς…); Js 1:12. οἱ κατʼ ἄνδρα(Dio Chrys. 15 [32], 6; cp. κατʼ
ἄνδρα καὶ οἶκονPsSol 9:5) man for man, individually IEph 4:2 (of presbyters, but
s. JKleist, note ad loc., rank and file); 20:2; ITr 13:2; ISm 5:1; 12:2; IPol 1:3.
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek τὶς TIS someone, a person(Theognis 1, 199 Diehl2; X., Cyr. 2, 2, 22; Sir 27:7) Lk 9:38; 19:2; J 1:30; Ro 4:8 (Ps 32:2). Pl. some people (1 Macc 12:1; 13:34; Just., D. 108, 2 al.) Lk 5:18; Ac 6:11. ἀνήρ τις ANHR TIS Lk 8:27; Ac 10:1. ἀνὴρ ὅς ANHR hOS Lat. is qui (like אִישׁ אֲשֶׁר; )iY$ )$eR cp. 1 Macc 7:7; PsSol 6:1; 10:1 and as early as Pind., P. 9, 87 ἀνήρ τις, ὸ̔ς… ANHR TIS, hOS); Js 1:12. οἱ κατʼ ἄνδρα hOI KAT’ ANDRA (Dio Chrys. 15 [32], 6; cp. κατʼ ἄνδρα καὶ οἶκον KAT’ ANDRA KAI OIKON PsSol 9:5) man for man, individually IEph 4:2 (of presbyters, but s. JKleist, note ad loc., rank and file); 20:2; ITr 13:2; ISm 5:1; 12:2; IPol 1:3.
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
—– Original Message —– Sent: 24. november 2010 02:56
I cannot figure out why you think ANHR intensifies EGW EIMI. It is true that “I” is somewhat stressed, but that is because he starts his defense, so the topic of his defense is himself.
IOUDAIOS is an adjective – Jewish – rather than a noun – Jew. You can have a Jewish country (CWRA), a Jewish land (GH), a Jewish man (ANHR, Acts 10:28, 13:6), a Jewish woman (Act 16:1), a Jewish chief priest (Acts 19:14), a Jewish ANQRWPOS (Acts 21:39). Sometimes the adjective is used substantively, but it is still an adjective. Luke prefers to have a noun with the adjective, and some of these may be influenced by a Semitic expression. Paul was speaking Hebrew here (ish yehudi).
You could translate it by “I am a Jewish man” as opposed to an Egyptian man or a Greek man, but it is more natural in English just to say “I am a Jew”. And if there was focus on his Jewishness, the text should have been something like EGW EIMI IOUDAIOS (ANHR). If contrastive, ANHR would probably not be present.
Compare also Acts 21:39 Ἐγὼ ἄνθρωπος μέν εἰμι Ἰουδαῖος EGW ANQRWPOS MEN EIMI IOUDAIOS
At least KJV does not here say: “I am indeed a person”.
Iver Larsen
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