Ephesians 2:14-15 … ὁ ποιήσας τὰ ἀμφότερα ἓν καὶ τὸ μεσότοιχον τοῦ φραγμοῦ λύσας, τὴν ἔχθραν ἐν τῇ σαρκὶ αὐτοῦ τὸν νόμον τῶν ἐντολῶν ἐν δόγμασιν καταργήσας….
I have come across two different translations of this passage, one in the ESV which says,
“….who has made us both one and has broken down in his flesh the dividing wall of hostility by abolishing the law of commandments in ordinances…”
and the other from an Interlinear bible,
“…He making us both one, and breaking down the middle wall of partition, annulling in his flesh the enmity, the law of commandments in decrees…”
the ESV seems to be saying that “τὴν ἔχθραν” is modifying “μεσότοιχον τοῦ φραγμοῦ” (“the dividing wall of hostility”) where the Interlinear bible seems to be connecting “τὴν ἔχθραν” to “τὸν νόμον τῶν ἐντολῶν ἐν δόγμασιν” (“anulling in his flesh the emnity *which is *the law of commandments in decrees…”).
In my opinion it seems that the Interlinear translation is more accurate because of the accusative case of τὴν ἔχθραν indicating that it is the direct object of καταργήσας, as opposed to the ESV translation which does not seem to use τὴν ἔχθραν in a way that I am familiar with [but we all know the flexibility of language so I wouldn’t be surprised if it was used in a way unknown to me 🙂 ]
So my questions are…
– Are either of the translations accurate? If no, what would be a more accurate translation? – How is τὴν ἔχθραν functioning in the passage, and how does one determine that?
thank you,
Jordan
Αὐτὸς γάρ ἐστιν ἡ εἰρήνη ἡμῶν, ὁ ποιήσας τὰ ἀμφότερα ἓν καὶ τὸ μεσότοιχον τοῦ φραγμοῦ λύσας, τὴν ἔχθραν ἐν τῇ σαρκὶ αὐτοῦ,
AUTOS GAR ESTIN hH EIRHNH hHMWN, hO POINHSAS TA AMFOTERA hEN KAI TA MESOTOIXON TOU FRAGMOU LUSAS, THN EXQRAN EN THi SARKI AUTOU Firstly, it isn’t so much about how to translate as how to understand. I think you are misunderstanding the ESV translation. I think the genitive relation given in the ESV is to be understood as a genitive of apposition — in other words, the dividing wall consists in hostility. I would similarly understand the τὴν ἔξθραν THN EXQRAN to be an appositive to the preceding τὸ μεσότοιχον τοῦ φραγμοῦ TO MESOTOIXON TOU FRAGMOU. What seems to be understood here is the existence of a wall in the Temple which separates the area which the gentiles could visit from the area which no non-Jew was able to enter and which was indicated by a notice warning gentiles to not enter on pain of death.
george gfsomsel
… search for truth, hear truth, learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth, defend the truth till death.
– Jan Hus _________
________________________________ href=”mailto:b-greek@lists.ibiblio.org”>b-greek@lists.ibiblio.org; Jordan Cooper Sent: Sat, May 7, 2011 8:40:34 AM
Ephesians 2:14-15 … ὁ ποιήσας τὰ ἀμφότερα ἓν καὶ τὸ μεσότοιχον τοῦ φραγμοῦ λύσας, τὴν ἔχθραν ἐν τῇ σαρκὶ αὐτοῦ τὸν νόμον τῶν ἐντολῶν ἐν δόγμασιν καταργήσας….
I have come across two different translations of this passage, one in the ESV which says,
“….who has made us both one and has broken down in his flesh the dividing wall of hostility by abolishing the law of commandments in ordinances…”
and the other from an Interlinear bible,
“…He making us both one, and breaking down the middle wall of partition, annulling in his flesh the enmity, the law of commandments in decrees…”
the ESV seems to be saying that “τὴν ἔχθραν” is modifying “μεσότοιχον τοῦ φραγμοῦ” (“the dividing wall of hostility”) where the Interlinear bible seems to be connecting “τὴν ἔχθραν” to “τὸν νόμον τῶν ἐντολῶν ἐν δόγμασιν” (“anulling in his flesh the emnity *which is *the law of commandments in decrees…”).
In my opinion it seems that the Interlinear translation is more accurate because of the accusative case of τὴν ἔχθραν indicating that it is the direct object of καταργήσας, as opposed to the ESV translation which does not seem to use τὴν ἔχθραν in a way that I am familiar with [but we all know the flexibility of language so I wouldn’t be surprised if it was used in a way unknown to me 🙂 ]
So my questions are…
– Are either of the translations accurate? If no, what would be a more accurate translation? – How is τὴν ἔχθραν functioning in the passage, and how does one determine that?
thank you,
Jordan
Αὐτὸς γάρ ἐστιν ἡ εἰρήνη ἡμῶν, ὁ ποιήσας τὰ ἀμφότερα ἓν καὶ τὸ μεσότοιχον τοῦ φραγμοῦ λύσας, τὴν ἔχθραν ἐν τῇ σαρκὶ αὐτοῦ,
AUTOS GAR ESTIN hH EIRHNH hHMWN, hO POINHSAS TA AMFOTERA hEN KAI TA MESOTOIXON TOU FRAGMOU LUSAS, THN EXQRAN EN THi SARKI AUTOU Firstly, it isn’t so much about how to translate as how to understand. I think you are misunderstanding the ESV translation. I think the genitive relation given in the ESV is to be understood as a genitive of apposition — in other words, the dividing wall consists in hostility. I would similarly understand the τὴν ἔξθραν THN EXQRAN to be an appositive to the preceding τὸ μεσότοιχον τοῦ φραγμοῦ TO MESOTOIXON TOU FRAGMOU. What seems to be understood here is the existence of a wall in the Temple which separates the area which the gentiles could visit from the area which no non-Jew was able to enter and which was indicated by a notice warning gentiles to not enter on pain of death.
george gfsomsel
… search for truth, hear truth, learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth, defend the truth till death.
– Jan Hus _________
________________________________ href=”mailto:b-greek@lists.ibiblio.org”>b-greek@lists.ibiblio.org; Jordan Cooper Sent: Sat, May 7, 2011 8:40:34 AM
Ephesians 2:14-15 … ὁ ποιήσας τὰ ἀμφότερα ἓν καὶ τὸ μεσότοιχον τοῦ φραγμοῦ λύσας, τὴν ἔχθραν ἐν τῇ σαρκὶ αὐτοῦ τὸν νόμον τῶν ἐντολῶν ἐν δόγμασιν καταργήσας….
I have come across two different translations of this passage, one in the ESV which says,
“….who has made us both one and has broken down in his flesh the dividing wall of hostility by abolishing the law of commandments in ordinances…”
and the other from an Interlinear bible,
“…He making us both one, and breaking down the middle wall of partition, annulling in his flesh the enmity, the law of commandments in decrees…”
the ESV seems to be saying that “τὴν ἔχθραν” is modifying “μεσότοιχον τοῦ φραγμοῦ” (“the dividing wall of hostility”) where the Interlinear bible seems to be connecting “τὴν ἔχθραν” to “τὸν νόμον τῶν ἐντολῶν ἐν δόγμασιν” (“anulling in his flesh the emnity *which is *the law of commandments in decrees…”).
In my opinion it seems that the Interlinear translation is more accurate because of the accusative case of τὴν ἔχθραν indicating that it is the direct object of καταργήσας, as opposed to the ESV translation which does not seem to use τὴν ἔχθραν in a way that I am familiar with [but we all know the flexibility of language so I wouldn’t be surprised if it was used in a way unknown to me 🙂 ]
So my questions are…
– Are either of the translations accurate? If no, what would be a more accurate translation? – How is τὴν ἔχθραν functioning in the passage, and how does one determine that?
thank you,
Jordan