We have an example in this very passage of Matthew taking someone else's words to mean something that that author did not intend (Zech 9:9). It's only a certain brand of Christian interpretation that creates a forced and unnatural syncretism between the holy writers.
But, for anyone merely skimming the above, I would suggest that mwh's summation not be relied upon: there is the word order, the present tense of the next phrase, the fact that ἀποστέλλειν is "send off/dispatch" not "send back", and Matthew's and Luke's decisions to suppress/change a difficult bit in Mark, as they are known to do.