An Exegetical Study of the Term διακονος in Romans 16:1 with Reference to Phoebe
This exegetical study of “An Exegetical Study of the Term διακονος in Romans 16:1 with Reference to Phoebe” is based on a b-greek discussion thread. The initial inquiry focused on the use of the masculine noun διακονος (deacon/servant) in Romans 16:1-2 to refer to Phoebe, a woman. The question posed concerned the commonality of such usage in Biblical Greek and whether it was considered grammatically anomalous or conventionally applied in this manner.
The central exegetical issue revolves around the precise semantic range and functional implication of διακονος when applied to Phoebe. Specifically, scholars debate whether the term here denotes a formal ecclesiastical office, often translated as “deaconess,” or a more general role of service and ministry, rendered as “servant” or “minister.” This distinction carries significant implications for understanding women’s roles in the early church. A crucial linguistic point, raised in the discussion, is the nature of certain Greek nouns as “epicene” or “common,” meaning their grammatical form does not strictly dictate the biological gender of the referent. Understanding διακονος within this linguistic framework is essential for interpreting Paul’s commendation of Phoebe.
Greek text (Nestle 1904)
Συνίστημι δὲ ὑμῖν Φοίβην τὴν ἀδελφὴν ἡμῶν, οὖσαν διάκονον τῆς ἐκκλησίας τῆς ἐν Κεγχρεαῖς,
Key differences with SBLGNT (2010):
* There are no substantive textual differences between the Nestle 1904 text and the SBLGNT 2010 edition for Romans 16:1. Both texts present the same wording.
**Textual Criticism (NA28) and Lexical Notes (KITTEL, BDAG)**
The textual apparatus of NA28 for Romans 16:1 shows no significant variants affecting the word διάκονον itself, indicating its stability across the manuscript tradition. This stability underscores the importance of a lexical and grammatical analysis rather than a textual critical one for this particular term.
Lexically, the term διάκονος (diakonos) carries a broad semantic range.
* **BDAG (Bauer, Danker, Arndt, Gingrich, Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature)** identifies several primary senses:
1. One who serves, a servant, attendant, minister, helper (e.g., Matt 22:13; John 2:5, 9). This general sense of service is foundational.
2. One who carries out duties assigned by another, especially in a cultic or religious sense, a minister (e.g., Rom 15:8; Gal 2:17).
3. In a specific church office, a deacon or deaconess (e.g., Phil 1:1; 1 Tim 3:8, 12). BDAG explicitly notes its application to both male and female individuals, listing Romans 16:1 as an example where it likely refers to a “deaconess.”
* **KITTEL (Theological Dictionary of the New Testament)** provides an extensive etymological and semantic history of διάκονος. It traces the term from classical Greek, where it denoted a messenger or servant (often at table), to the Septuagint, where it could refer to royal or court officials. In the New Testament, KITTEL highlights the core idea of “service” (διακονία) as central. It notes the development from a general sense of service to a more specific, though not always rigidly defined, ministerial role within the Christian community. KITTEL acknowledges that in Romans 16:1, διάκονος likely describes Phoebe’s official function, emphasizing that “women as well as men might hold offices.” While the term is grammatically masculine, its usage, particularly with a feminine article and referring to a woman (Phoebe), strongly suggests an inclusive application, reinforcing the concept of epicene nouns in certain contexts. The ambiguity between a general “minister/servant” and a specific “deaconess” persists, but KITTEL leans towards an official understanding for Phoebe.
The grammatical form of διάκονος is masculine, yet here it refers to Phoebe (Φοίβην), a woman, further qualified by the feminine participle οὖσαν (“being”). This construction is a prime example of an epicene noun, where the grammatical gender does not necessarily align with the biological sex of the referent. Such nouns were not uncommon in Koine Greek.
Translation Variants
The interpretation of οὖσαν διάκονον (ousan diakonon) is critical for understanding Phoebe’s role. Grammatically, the participle οὖσαν (being) agrees with Phoebe (Φοίβην) in gender, number, and case, making it clear that she is the one performing the function indicated by διάκονος. The rhetorical impact of Paul’s description of Phoebe is paramount. By commending her with this term, Paul is not merely stating a fact but also advocating for her reception and support by the Roman church. The strength of this commendation depends significantly on the perceived status or function implied by διάκονος.
Several translation possibilities exist, each carrying distinct nuances:
1. **”Servant” or “Minister”:** This renders διάκονος in its most general sense, emphasizing Phoebe’s active participation in the church’s work, perhaps in practical service, teaching, or pastoral care. This interpretation highlights her dedication and helpfulness without necessarily designating a formal office. It aligns with the broad understanding of διακονία as service to God and others.
2. **”Helper” or “Agent”:** This nuance emphasizes Phoebe’s role in facilitating the work of the church or Paul himself, perhaps by carrying messages (like this letter), offering hospitality, or managing resources. This suggests a significant, active, and perhaps leadership-oriented role, but still not necessarily a formalized, institutional office.
3. **”Deaconess”:** This translation assigns Phoebe a specific, recognized ecclesiastical office within the early Christian community. This interpretation is supported by later church structures that included female deacons (e.g., Pliny the Younger’s letter to Trajan, early church orders). If understood as an office, it implies a certain authority, responsibility, and public recognition of her ministry, consistent with Paul’s strong commendation and request for the Roman believers to assist her. The use of a masculine noun for a female office is not without precedent in ancient Greek, especially for roles of authority or public function (e.g., ἱερεύς for a priestess).
The choice among these variants often reflects theological commitments regarding women’s roles in church leadership. However, from a purely linguistic and historical perspective, the evidence supports that Phoebe held a significant and recognized ministry.
Conclusions and Translation Suggestions
The exegetical analysis of διάκονος in Romans 16:1 confirms that Phoebe held a noteworthy and active role within the church at Cenchreae. While the masculine grammatical form of the noun has historically generated discussion, the consensus among scholars, supported by the concept of epicene nouns and contextual evidence from early Christian practice, is that it refers to a woman. The precise nature of her role—whether a general function of service or a specific ecclesiastical office—remains a subject of scholarly debate, yet it is clear that she was a highly valued and entrusted minister.
Based on the linguistic, historical, and theological considerations, the following translation suggestions are offered, each emphasizing a particular facet of Phoebe’s ministry:
1. “I commend to you Phoebe, our sister, *who serves the church in Cenchreae as a minister*.”
*This translation emphasizes Phoebe’s active, dedicated service and ministry within the local church, without definitively specifying a formal, hierarchical office, thus allowing for a broader understanding of her contributions.*
2. “I commend to you Phoebe, our sister, *who is a dedicated servant of the church in Cenchreae*.”
*This option highlights the aspect of faithful service and commitment, portraying Phoebe as a key helper and functionary whose work was essential to the community’s operations.*
3. “I commend to you Phoebe, our sister, *who holds the office of deacon in the church in Cenchreae*.”
*This translation interprets διάκονος as a formal ecclesiastical title, acknowledging Phoebe’s recognized leadership position and suggesting a structured role akin to that of a deaconess in later church traditions.*
What about:
Didaskalos
Διδασκαλος
Can we have “η διδασκαλος”?
? And for that matter, would a bad teacher be a διδασκακος?
Rob
—–Original Message—– href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] [mailto:[email protected]] On Behalf Of Mark Lightman Sent: Monday, December 13, 2010 5:53 PM
θεος (QEOS) is another one. Even ανθρωπος (ANQRWPOS.)
(Hi, Stephen)
Mark L
FWSFOROS MARKOS
________________________________ Sent: Mon, December 13, 2010 5:46:44 PM
Certain nouns in Greek are “epicene” (or “common”) in that their form is the same for both masculine and feminine but their gender depends on whom the noun is referring to. DIAKONOS (aide) is one of them. PARQENOS (virgin) is another.
Stephen — Stephen C. Carlson Graduate Program in Religion Duke University — B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek — B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
Mark, Θεὸς/θεὰ in everything else you are right
href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] — B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
Actually, LSJ gives numerous references where θεός (QEOS) is used with the fem. article, often to refer to Athena:
θεός fem., *goddess*, μήτε θήλεια θεός, μήτε τις ἄρσην Il.8.7, cf. Hdt.2.35, al.; τοῖς θεοῖς εὔχομαι πᾶσι καὶ πάσαις D.18.1, cf. 141, Orac.ib.21.52; esp. at Athens, of Athena, Decr. ap. And.1.77, Pl.Ti.21a, etc.; ἁ Διὸς θεός, Ζηνὸς ἡ θ., S.Aj.401 (lyr.), 952 (ἡ Διὸς θεά ib.450); of other goddesses, ποντία θεός Pi.I. 8(7).36; ἡ νερτέρα θ.,= Περσεφόνη, S.OC1548, etc.; of Thetis, Pl. Ap.28c; of Niobe, S.El.150 (lyr.), Ant.834 (anap.): in dual, of Demeter and Persephone, τὰ τοῖν θεοῖν ψηφίσματα Ar.V.378 (lyr.); οὐδ’ ἔδεισε τὼ θεώ And.1.125; freq. in oaths, νὴ τὼ θεώ Ar.Lys.112; μὰ τὼ θεώ Id.Ec.155,532.
Daniel R. Streett Asst. Prof. of Greek and NT Criswell College, Dallas, TX
On Tue, Dec 14, 2010 at 7:53 PM, nikolaos kadamouwrote:
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
see μήτε θήλεια θεός
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
Hi, Robert,
We can now.
Yes. And a VERY bad teacher would be a δυσ-διδασ-κακος. (DYSDIDASKAKOS)
(not giving up my day job) Mark L Φωσφορος
FWSFOROS MARKOS
________________________________; Biblical Greek Mailing List Sent: Tue, December 14, 2010 8:05:06 AM
What about:
Didaskalos
Διδασκαλος
Can we have “η διδασκαλος”?
? And for that matter, would a bad teacher be a διδασκακος?
Rob
—–Original Message—– href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] [mailto:[email protected]] On Behalf Of Mark Lightman Sent: Monday, December 13, 2010 5:53 PM
θεος (QEOS) is another one. Even ανθρωπος (ANQRWPOS.)
(Hi, Stephen)
Mark L
FWSFOROS MARKOS
________________________________ Sent: Mon, December 13, 2010 5:46:44 PM
Certain nouns in Greek are “epicene” (or “common”) in that their form is the same for both masculine and feminine but their gender depends on whom the noun is referring to. DIAKONOS (aide) is one of them. PARQENOS (virgin) is another.
Stephen — Stephen C. Carlson Graduate Program in Religion Duke University — B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
I’ve been waiting for further input but seeing none forthcoming let me prove my lack of knowledge before the whole world- the example from LSJ, as far as I can tell does not once use a fem article with a masc noun. It is my understanding that the article tells us what the gender of its noun is. So, the article and its noun are ALWAYS the same gender. What don’t I understand in this conversation? Terry Cook sDg
————————————————– Sent: Tuesday, December 14, 2010 9:05 PM Cc: “Biblical Greek Mailing List”
href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] — B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
What you’re missing is that in the sections of LSJ cited below:
(a) that θήλεια θεός involves a feminine adjective applied to a noun θεός, proving that θεός may be understood as referring to a goddess;
(b) In τοῖς θεοῖς εὔχομαι πᾶσι καὶ πάσαις, that πάσαις is a modifier of τοῖς θεοῖς, which must therefore be understood as having common gender;
(c) ἁ Διὸς θεός: where ἁ is the feminine article, equivalent to Attic-Ionic ἡ
(d) ἡ νέρτερα θεός = Persephone, “the nether goddess”
The evidence cited in LSJ by Daniel Streett is altogether convincing that the noun θεός was understood to have common gender and could be used of a goddess as well as of a masculine god.
Carl W. Conrad Department of Classics, Washington University (ret)
href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] — B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
I’ve posted 10-11 times over the past five years and nearly every time Carl has graciously responded in some way (thank you) but Carl makes me feel like a grade schooler again watching out for Mr King who roamed the halls looking for little boys misbehaving so he could paddle ’em! Maybe it’s in part because Carl always cuts my name and the “sDg” off before responding.
OK, LSJ points out a few examples of a fem art with a masc noun. Was this usage only prior to the Koine era? Are there any examples of this construction in the NT or LXX? Was it “good” Greek or were writers being lazy or maybe even “ungrammatical?”
Terry Cook sDg
Sent: Tuesday, December 21, 2010 7:20 PM Cc: nikolaos kadamou ; Daniel Streett ; Biblical Greek Mailing List
I’ve been waiting for further input but seeing none forthcoming let me prove my lack of knowledge before the whole world- the example from LSJ, as far as I can tell does not once use a fem article with a masc noun. It is my understanding that the article tells us what the gender of its noun is. So, the article and its noun are ALWAYS the same gender. What don’t I understand in this conversation?
What you’re missing is that in the sections of LSJ cited below:
(a) that θήλεια θεός involves a feminine adjective applied to a noun θεός, proving that θεός may be understood as referring to a goddess;
(b) In τοῖς θεοῖς εὔχομαι πᾶσι καὶ πάσαις, that πάσαις is a modifier of τοῖς θεοῖς, which must therefore be understood as having common gender;
(c) ἁ Διὸς θεός: where ἁ is the feminine article, equivalent to Attic-Ionic ἡ
(d) ἡ νέρτερα θεός = Persephone, “the nether goddess”
The evidence cited in LSJ by Daniel Streett is altogether convincing that the noun θεός was understood to have common gender and could be used of a goddess as well as of a masculine god.
Carl W. ConradDepartment of Classics, Washington University (ret)
————————————————– Sent: Tuesday, December 14, 2010 9:05 PM Cc: “Biblical Greek Mailing List”
href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] — B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek — B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
Hi, Terry,
Have you studied any languages apart from Greek that still have gender/classes in their noun system?
It is helpful to distinguish between the grammatical class (unfortunately called “gender”) of a noun and the gender of what it refers to, if it refers to something that has gender. Obviously a house has no gender, even though OIKOS is grammatically masculine.
QEOS is grammatically masculine – some prefer to call it common gender, but I consider that to be an unhelpful mixing of grammatical class with reference – while QEA is grammatically feminine. QEA would always refer to a goddess, whereas QEOS may refer to either a masculine god or a feminine goddess, and this is clarified by use of the article or by other words that agree in gender with the referent of the noun. It is not a difference between Classical and Koine Greek. You can find THS MEGALHS QEAS (of the great goddess) in Acts 19:27 and THN QEON hHMWN (our goddess) in Acts 19:37, even though some mss changed to QEAN.
Another such word would be ONOS (donkey). It may refer to a male donkey hO ONOS or a female donkey hH ONOS.
PARQENOS and DIAKONOS have already been mentioned. ANQRWPOS is more tricky, so I will leave that aside.
Iver Larsen
—– Original Message —– Cc: “Biblical Greek Mailing List” Sent: 22. december 2010 16:23
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
Sorry, but it’s not a matter of a feminine article with a masculine noun. Rather, QEOS, like ANQRWPOS, is a noun of “common” gender. We find hH ANQRWPOS used of a female human being or “person” — and we find hH QEOS of a female deity.
Moreover, although we would hardly expect to find an instance of QEOS used as a feminine substantive (because it has a feminine article) in the Greek New Testament or in the LXX, paganism endured in the Greek-speaking world well after the beginning of the Christian era. So it’s not really a matter of an obsolete usage but rather a usage that one wouldn’t expect to find in Christian literature composed in Greek. And again — it’s not a matter of a “masculine” noun being used with a feminine adjective; rather it is a noun of “common” gender.
Carl W. Conrad Department of Classics, Washington University (ret)
href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] — B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
θεος (QEOS) is another one. Even ανθρωπος (ANQRWPOS.)
(Hi, Stephen)
Mark L
θεος (QEOS) is another one. Even ανθρωπος (ANQRWPOS.)
(Hi, Stephen)
Mark L
What about:
Didaskalos
Διδασκαλος
Can we have “η διδασκαλος”?
? And for that matter, would a bad teacher be a διδασκακος?
Rob
—–Original Message—– href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] [mailto:[email protected]] On Behalf Of Mark Lightman Sent: Monday, December 13, 2010 5:53 PM
θεος (QEOS) is another one. Even ανθρωπος (ANQRWPOS.)
(Hi, Stephen)
Mark L
FWSFOROS MARKOS
________________________________ Sent: Mon, December 13, 2010 5:46:44 PM
Certain nouns in Greek are “epicene” (or “common”) in that their form is the same for both masculine and feminine but their gender depends on whom the noun is referring to. DIAKONOS (aide) is one of them. PARQENOS (virgin) is another.
Stephen — Stephen C. Carlson Graduate Program in Religion Duke University — B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek — B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
Mark, Θεὸς/θεὰ in everything else you are right
href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] — B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
Actually, LSJ gives numerous references where θεός (QEOS) is used with the fem. article, often to refer to Athena:
θεός fem., *goddess*, μήτε θήλεια θεός, μήτε τις ἄρσην Il.8.7, cf. Hdt.2.35, al.; τοῖς θεοῖς εὔχομαι πᾶσι καὶ πάσαις D.18.1, cf. 141, Orac.ib.21.52; esp. at Athens, of Athena, Decr. ap. And.1.77, Pl.Ti.21a, etc.; ἁ Διὸς θεός, Ζηνὸς ἡ θ., S.Aj.401 (lyr.), 952 (ἡ Διὸς θεά ib.450); of other goddesses, ποντία θεός Pi.I. 8(7).36; ἡ νερτέρα θ.,= Περσεφόνη, S.OC1548, etc.; of Thetis, Pl. Ap.28c; of Niobe, S.El.150 (lyr.), Ant.834 (anap.): in dual, of Demeter and Persephone, τὰ τοῖν θεοῖν ψηφίσματα Ar.V.378 (lyr.); οὐδ’ ἔδεισε τὼ θεώ And.1.125; freq. in oaths, νὴ τὼ θεώ Ar.Lys.112; μὰ τὼ θεώ Id.Ec.155,532.
Daniel R. Streett Asst. Prof. of Greek and NT Criswell College, Dallas, TX
On Tue, Dec 14, 2010 at 7:53 PM, nikolaos kadamouwrote:
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
see μήτε θήλεια θεός
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
Hi, Robert,
We can now.
Yes. And a VERY bad teacher would be a δυσ-διδασ-κακος. (DYSDIDASKAKOS)
(not giving up my day job) Mark L Φωσφορος
FWSFOROS MARKOS
________________________________; Biblical Greek Mailing List Sent: Tue, December 14, 2010 8:05:06 AM
What about:
Didaskalos
Διδασκαλος
Can we have “η διδασκαλος”?
? And for that matter, would a bad teacher be a διδασκακος?
Rob
—–Original Message—– href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] [mailto:[email protected]] On Behalf Of Mark Lightman Sent: Monday, December 13, 2010 5:53 PM
θεος (QEOS) is another one. Even ανθρωπος (ANQRWPOS.)
(Hi, Stephen)
Mark L
FWSFOROS MARKOS
________________________________ Sent: Mon, December 13, 2010 5:46:44 PM
Certain nouns in Greek are “epicene” (or “common”) in that their form is the same for both masculine and feminine but their gender depends on whom the noun is referring to. DIAKONOS (aide) is one of them. PARQENOS (virgin) is another.
Stephen — Stephen C. Carlson Graduate Program in Religion Duke University — B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
— B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
I’ve been waiting for further input but seeing none forthcoming let me prove my lack of knowledge before the whole world- the example from LSJ, as far as I can tell does not once use a fem article with a masc noun. It is my understanding that the article tells us what the gender of its noun is. So, the article and its noun are ALWAYS the same gender. What don’t I understand in this conversation? Terry Cook sDg
————————————————– Sent: Tuesday, December 14, 2010 9:05 PM Cc: “Biblical Greek Mailing List”
href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] — B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
What you’re missing is that in the sections of LSJ cited below:
(a) that θήλεια θεός involves a feminine adjective applied to a noun θεός, proving that θεός may be understood as referring to a goddess;
(b) In τοῖς θεοῖς εὔχομαι πᾶσι καὶ πάσαις, that πάσαις is a modifier of τοῖς θεοῖς, which must therefore be understood as having common gender;
(c) ἁ Διὸς θεός: where ἁ is the feminine article, equivalent to Attic-Ionic ἡ
(d) ἡ νέρτερα θεός = Persephone, “the nether goddess”
The evidence cited in LSJ by Daniel Streett is altogether convincing that the noun θεός was understood to have common gender and could be used of a goddess as well as of a masculine god.
Carl W. Conrad Department of Classics, Washington University (ret)
href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] — B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
I’ve posted 10-11 times over the past five years and nearly every time Carl has graciously responded in some way (thank you) but Carl makes me feel like a grade schooler again watching out for Mr King who roamed the halls looking for little boys misbehaving so he could paddle ’em! Maybe it’s in part because Carl always cuts my name and the “sDg” off before responding.
OK, LSJ points out a few examples of a fem art with a masc noun. Was this usage only prior to the Koine era? Are there any examples of this construction in the NT or LXX? Was it “good” Greek or were writers being lazy or maybe even “ungrammatical?”
Terry Cook sDg
Sent: Tuesday, December 21, 2010 7:20 PM Cc: nikolaos kadamou ; Daniel Streett ; Biblical Greek Mailing List
I’ve been waiting for further input but seeing none forthcoming let me prove my lack of knowledge before the whole world- the example from LSJ, as far as I can tell does not once use a fem article with a masc noun. It is my understanding that the article tells us what the gender of its noun is. So, the article and its noun are ALWAYS the same gender. What don’t I understand in this conversation?
What you’re missing is that in the sections of LSJ cited below:
(a) that θήλεια θεός involves a feminine adjective applied to a noun θεός, proving that θεός may be understood as referring to a goddess;
(b) In τοῖς θεοῖς εὔχομαι πᾶσι καὶ πάσαις, that πάσαις is a modifier of τοῖς θεοῖς, which must therefore be understood as having common gender;
(c) ἁ Διὸς θεός: where ἁ is the feminine article, equivalent to Attic-Ionic ἡ
(d) ἡ νέρτερα θεός = Persephone, “the nether goddess”
The evidence cited in LSJ by Daniel Streett is altogether convincing that the noun θεός was understood to have common gender and could be used of a goddess as well as of a masculine god.
Carl W. ConradDepartment of Classics, Washington University (ret)
————————————————– Sent: Tuesday, December 14, 2010 9:05 PM Cc: “Biblical Greek Mailing List”
href=”mailto:[email protected]”>[email protected] — B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek — B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
Hi, Terry,
Have you studied any languages apart from Greek that still have gender/classes in their noun system?
It is helpful to distinguish between the grammatical class (unfortunately called “gender”) of a noun and the gender of what it refers to, if it refers to something that has gender. Obviously a house has no gender, even though OIKOS is grammatically masculine.
QEOS is grammatically masculine – some prefer to call it common gender, but I consider that to be an unhelpful mixing of grammatical class with reference – while QEA is grammatically feminine. QEA would always refer to a goddess, whereas QEOS may refer to either a masculine god or a feminine goddess, and this is clarified by use of the article or by other words that agree in gender with the referent of the noun. It is not a difference between Classical and Koine Greek. You can find THS MEGALHS QEAS (of the great goddess) in Acts 19:27 and THN QEON hHMWN (our goddess) in Acts 19:37, even though some mss changed to QEAN.
Another such word would be ONOS (donkey). It may refer to a male donkey hO ONOS or a female donkey hH ONOS.
PARQENOS and DIAKONOS have already been mentioned. ANQRWPOS is more tricky, so I will leave that aside.
Iver Larsen
—– Original Message —– Cc: “Biblical Greek Mailing List” Sent: 22. december 2010 16:23
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Sorry, but it’s not a matter of a feminine article with a masculine noun. Rather, QEOS, like ANQRWPOS, is a noun of “common” gender. We find hH ANQRWPOS used of a female human being or “person” — and we find hH QEOS of a female deity.
Moreover, although we would hardly expect to find an instance of QEOS used as a feminine substantive (because it has a feminine article) in the Greek New Testament or in the LXX, paganism endured in the Greek-speaking world well after the beginning of the Christian era. So it’s not really a matter of an obsolete usage but rather a usage that one wouldn’t expect to find in Christian literature composed in Greek. And again — it’s not a matter of a “masculine” noun being used with a feminine adjective; rather it is a noun of “common” gender.
Carl W. Conrad Department of Classics, Washington University (ret)
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