I’d take this as meaning something like “As to jealousy he longs for the spirit that he implanted in us.” The subject of επιποθεῖ must surely be God, and το πνεῦμα must surely be its object. I really don’t see much room for doubt about that. The diffi…
It’s just pulling in Byzantine majority corrections. Getting your textual criticism from CBGM is about as silly as getting it from chat-gpt, imo.We also have ἐὰν μή τις ὁδηγήσει με in 8:31, again “corrected” in Byzantine majority texts to subjunctive….
Here’s my translation of 2Th 2:1-12, with some notes. It makes a bit more sense to me now than the last time I looked at it. Hopefully it will make even more sense the next time I run across it, however many years from now. But who knows?Ἐρωτῶμεν δὲ ὑ…
I see this forum is mostly discussing biblical Greek, but personally I’m mostly interested in Byzantine texts. I’m currently reading Etymologiarum by Isidore of Seville, and finding it very interesting and legible. I’d love to find something similar i…
There is an instance in Psalm 138:6 in which ἀπὸ μακρόθεν matches the construction of the Hebrew ἀπὸ-μακρό-θεν/מ־מ־רחק. Does-θεν have the same function as -hinc?Psalm 138:6 ab longinquē cognōscit “He knows from a distance” ?Statistics: Posted by Sabo…
…which makes me wonder if the repetition of οὐχ οὕτως in Psalm 1:4 is perhaps another way of expressing an emphatic negative in Greek? In other words, maybe ἀλλ’ ἢ only means “but rather / but instead” when it is immediately preceeded by an emphatic…
AdditionAlfred SchmollerHandkonkordanz zum griechischen Neuen Testament (14th ed 1968)https://www.abebooks.co.uk/servlet/Sear … danz&sts=tStatistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Sat Aug 17, 2024 2:19 pm
Thanks. επισταμαι : I never thought of that possibility!So it’s “being skilled with letters” > not able to read and write > being illiterate.These non-literary Papyri are very interesting texts, one can see, that the world in manny aspects hasn’…
Here’s Polybius with an aorist of the same verb, taking a dative object. After laying out the main points of the treaty:Ταῦτα μὲν οὖν ὑπετυπώθη τότε κεφαλαιωδῶς περὶ τῶν διαλύσεων· ἔδει δὲ τούτοις πρῶτον μὲν εὐδοκῆσαι τοὺς Αἰτωλούς, μετὰ δὲ ταῦτα γίνε…
Hi Joel, I don’t have a facsimile of the manuscript itself, but maybe it’s online: if anyone wanted to track it down, the 1983 critical edition describes manuscript C as sitting in the National Library of Austria, ref. ‘hist. gr. 63’, dated 1319, on p…
I had a very similar thought to mwh about its unintelligibility, and was casually trying to figure it out during the sermon at church this morning, having looked up the context on TLG just before. There appears to be a divine voice of some kind talkin…
Yes but it’s the ἀλλ’ἤ combo—quite illogical on its face—that stands in need of explanation. Whatever its origin I think it just has to be accepted as a linguistic quirk.Statistics: Posted by mwh — Thu May 16, 2024 7:26 pm
I had a very similar thought to mwh about its unintelligibility, and was casually trying to figure it out during the sermon at church this morning, having looked up the context on TLG just before. There appears to be a divine voice of some kind talkin…
Thanks for that. I need to have more thinking. Would you suggest that it could mean “force” the way some translations render it?I should clarify my argument; I’m not suggesting it is “more accurate” translation. It is prophetic language after all. I…
Hi Michael yes I also have BAGD on my bookshelf and consult it from time to time. Having read through Mark and Matthew in the GNT I’m now slowly working through Psalms in the LXX and when I hit an unfamiliar word I check different lexicons in the foll…
I had a very similar thought to mwh about its unintelligibility, and was casually trying to figure it out during the sermon at church this morning, having looked up the context on TLG just before. There appears to be a divine voice of some kind talkin…
This sort of thing is anathema to me. And why do theologians have to be so very nasty to one another? But I’m trying to understand the syntax along with the sense, starting from ταύτης τοίνυν οὕτω συναιρομένης (6 lines up from end). There it looks to …
Here’s Polybius with an aorist of the same verb, taking a dative object. After laying out the main points of the treaty:Ταῦτα μὲν οὖν ὑπετυπώθη τότε κεφαλαιωδῶς περὶ τῶν διαλύσεων· ἔδει δὲ τούτοις πρῶτον μὲν εὐδοκῆσαι τοὺς Αἰτωλούς, μετὰ δὲ ταῦτα γίνε…
Thank you both for this thread, which was an eye-opener for me, too, for those exact reasons that @thestuffedowl explains. An accusative as the subject of a verb? Well, well. Whatever next!Statistics: Posted by BrianB — Tue Jul 16, 2024 4:58 pm
Is the answer really as simple as that? That’s good to know. Thank you, @mwh!Statistics: Posted by BrianB — Tue Jul 02, 2024 1:23 pm