In search of a PERFECT translation John 20:23
AN TINWN AFHTE TAS hAMARTIAS AFEWNTAI AUTOIS, AN TINWN KRATHTE KEKRATHNTAI.
ἄν τινων ἀφῆτε τὰς ἁμαρτίας ἀφέωνται αὐτοῖς ἄν τινων κρατῆτε κεκράτηνται.
If you discharge sins from any, [the sins] have been discharged for them; If you hold any [to account], they have been held [to account].
What is the force of the perfect tenses in this verse?
I’m inclined to follow Wilber Thomas Dayton, inter alia. The Greek Perfect Tense in Relation to John 20:23, Matthew 16:19 and Matthew 18:18. Th.D. Thesis: Northern Baptist Theological Seminary, 1945.
Is there a good archive of discussion here regarding this? Or is there anyone who’d care to defend the HCSB, ESV, NIV against the LXX (Gen 30:33), Jerome (remittuntur), Luther (sind erlassen), Dayton et al.?