The Imperatival Tone in John 4:7: An Exegetical Examination of δός μοι πιεῖν
This exegetical study, prompted by a discussion within a scholarly forum, addresses the nuanced interpretation of the aorist imperative in John 4:7. The initial observation highlights a significant tonal difference between English translations of John 4:7, specifically comparing the New American Standard Bible (NASB) rendering “Give Me a drink” with the New International Version (NIV) “Will you give me a drink?”. Despite the underlying Greek text appearing consistent with no textual variants, these English renditions convey distinct registers of politeness or directness, raising fundamental questions about how the original Greek might have been perceived by its audience.
The core exegetical challenge lies in discerning the precise tone of the aorist imperative δός (“give”) in John 4:7. While grammars, such as those by Smyth (1835a) and Robertson (p. 947c), acknowledge the imperative’s capacity to express requests, not merely commands, they often lack specific guidance on identifying the subtle “flavors” or connotations. This study investigates whether linguistic features, verbal aspect (aorist), broader context, or the interlocutor’s response provide sufficient clues to interpret the imperative’s intended illocutionary force—whether it implies a direct command, a polite request, or something in between—and how this might inform appropriate translation choices. As Wallace (p. 488) notes, communicating tone in written language is inherently difficult, making this a crucial area for careful analysis.
ἔρχεται γυνὴ ἐκ τῆς Σαμαρείας ἀντλῆσαι ὕδωρ. λέγει αὐτῇ ὁ Ἰησοῦς, δός μοι πιεῖν.
(Nestle 1904, John 4:7)
Key differences with SBLGNT (2010):
- There are no significant textual differences between the Nestle 1904 text and the SBLGNT (2010) for John 4:7. Both editions present the same reading: ἔρχεται γυνὴ ἐκ τῆς Σαμαρείας ἀντλῆσαι ὕδωρ. λέγει αὐτῇ ὁ Ἰησοῦς, δός μοι πιεῖν.
Textual Criticism (NA28), Lexical Notes (KITTEL, BDAG):
The critical apparatus of NA28 for John 4:7 shows no significant textual variants for the phrase δός μοι πιεῖν, confirming the stability of this reading across the textual tradition. This absence of variants redirects exegetical attention from textual reconstruction to the pragmatic interpretation of the established text.
Lexically, the verb δίδωμι (aorist imperative δός) carries a broad semantic range. BDAG defines it as “to give, grant, hand over,” noting that imperatives can express commands, requests, or entreaties. The specific nuance is heavily context-dependent, relying on the social dynamics between speaker and hearer. For δός μοι, the interpretation as a direct command versus an earnest request hinges on the power relationship and situational factors. KITTEL’s Theological Dictionary, while focusing more on the theological dimensions of giving, broadly acknowledges the verb’s use in various human interactions, where the act of giving can be either requested or commanded. The infinitive πιεῖν, derived from πίνω (“to drink”), simply signifies “to drink” or “a drink,” functioning as the object of the giving without contributing to the tonal aspect of the request itself.
Translation Variants
The imperative δός is grammatically an aorist imperative, which typically presents an action as a simple, undivided whole, without specific emphasis on its duration. In an imperative context, this often denotes a direct instruction or request for an action to be performed. It does not inherently carry connotations of politeness or brusqueness, unlike, for example, a present imperative which might suggest an ongoing action.
The syntactic structure δός μοι πιεῖν (“give to me to drink”) is a common Greek construction for requesting a drink, with πιεῖν (aorist infinitive) substantivally meaning “a drink.” However, as grammarians like Robertson and Wallace highlight, discerning the tone of an imperative is highly contextual. The social dynamics between Jesus and the Samaritan woman are pivotal. Jesus, a Jewish man, initiates a conversation with a Samaritan woman—an interaction highly unusual and socially unconventional (cf. John 4:9). By asking for water, Jesus places himself in a position of need and dependence, a vulnerability that inherently softens the imperative from a command into an earnest request. The woman’s surprised response, “How is it that you, a Jew, ask (αἰτεῖς) a drink from me, a Samaritan woman?”, also uses a verb (αἰτέω) that can range from a polite “ask” to a forceful “demand.” Her surprise signals that the mere act of a Jew requesting anything from a Samaritan was remarkable, suggesting that the precise politeness or brusqueness of the verb itself might be secondary to the social breach of the interaction.
- NASB (e.g., 1995/2020): “Give Me a drink.”
This translation renders the aorist imperative δός as a direct command in English. While grammatically faithful to the imperative mood, it may, to modern English ears, convey a tone of directness that could sound brusque or demanding, depending on the reader’s cultural context for imperatives. This choice prioritizes the grammatical form of a command.
- NIV (2011): “Will you give me a drink?”
The NIV interprets the imperative as a question, using an English modal verb (“Will you…”) to soften the tone. This aligns with modern conventions of polite requests in English. This approach sacrifices the grammatical form of the imperative for what it perceives as the intended illocutionary force – a polite inquiry rather than a direct command, informed by the context of Jesus initiating conversation with an unexpected interlocutor. This reflects an interpretive decision about the tone rather than a literal rendering of the grammatical mood.
Conclusions and Translation Suggestions
The nuanced interpretation of the aorist imperative δός in John 4:7 demonstrates the perennial challenge of conveying ancient Greek tone into modern English. While the grammatical form is a direct imperative, the socio-rhetorical context strongly suggests a request rather than a demand. Jesus, by asking a Samaritan woman for a drink, places himself in a position of dependence, thereby inherently softening the illocutionary force of his words. The lack of textual variants for δός μοι πιεῖν confirms its stability in the textual tradition, shifting the interpretive focus to pragmatics rather than textual criticism. The aorist aspect simply presents the request for the action of giving as a whole, without adding specific tonal color. Ultimately, the context—the speaker, the hearer, and the situation—is paramount in determining the perceived politeness or directness.
- “Give me a drink.”
This translation maintains the direct grammatical form of the aorist imperative, presenting a concise and unadorned statement that reflects the Greek syntax. - “Could you give me a drink?”
This rendering interprets the imperative as a polite request, employing a modal verb to reflect a deferential tone appropriate for the social context of Jesus’ interaction with the Samaritan woman. - “I would like a drink.”
This option rephrases the imperative entirely as a statement of desire, focusing on the underlying need rather than the directness of the request, offering a softer, more indirect approach to the proposition.
For all the effort undertaken to consult the Greek grammars, this really doesn’t seem to be a question about Greek grammar but about English translation. I wonder how the people over at B-Translation would deal with it. The problem with expressions of the imperative is that they are like euphemisms in that they are endeavors to soften the harshness of a command. I remember as a child just old enough to run chores for my betters being asked/told, “Wouldn’t you like to go fetch me a loaf of bread?” Having heard such polite commands often enough, I once replied, “No, I wouldn’t like to do it, but I’ll do it for your sake.”
We’ve had these discussions in this forum many times with regard to the third-person imperatives such as hAGIASQHTW TO ONOMA SOU, the question being raised along the lines of “Why are we asking for God’s permission for His name to be hallowed?” Well, of course we aren’t. It’s just quite simply a fact that “let” is used as an auxiliary in imperative expressions in English just as “lassen” in German, “laisser” in French, “sinere” in Latin, and ἀφίημι/ἀφίω [AFIHMI/AFIW] in ancient Greek.
Carl W. Conrad Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
Hi, Stephen,
One of my all time favorite imperatives is Archimedes:
δός μοι ποῦ στῶ και κινήσω τὴν γῆν. DOS MOI POU STW KAI KINHSW THN GHN.
He’s not literally asking for a place to stand. It’s really a future more-or-less vivid condition: “If I had a place to stand, I would move the world.” The imperative is not a request, polite or otherwise, but is a rhetorical devise to involve the hearer more vividly in the absurdity of the proposition. Wallace would call it the protastic pseudo-imperative.
We do it in English. “Give this guy fourteen runs and he is tough to beat.”
Mark L Φωσφορος
FWSFOROS MARKOS
________________________________ Sent: Wed, April 6, 2011 9:03:52 PM
Ladies and Gentlemen:
e.g. NASB: 7There came a woman of Samaria to draw water. Jesus said to her, “Give Me a drink.” NIV: 7 When a Samaritan woman came to draw water, Jesus said to her, “Will you give me a drink?” Greek: DOS MOI PEIN
Whilst the essence of the sentence remains the same, [Jesus asks for a drink], the way in which Jesus asks, transmits quite a different tone between the translations, at least to the English reader. The text is the same — there appear to be no variants. It is a straightforward aorist imperative.
None of my commentaries deal with this point. BDF (SS387) says that the imperative is not confined to commands but also requests/concessions Smyth (SS1835a) says something similar. Both fail to help me [much] in identifying the different flavours.
AT Robertson [yes Mr. FWS — he was promoted to Greek work due to the lack of tornados, and another desperate attempt to get my money’s worth from my purchase ;-)] page 947[c] is slightly more helpful but not a lot. I almost forgot Wallace (until about to SEND this email) who is the most useful and who acknowledges the problem. Page 488 he says how difficult it is to communicate tone in a written language. He gives the impression of trying to categorise ever so neatly the different uses — but I’m not sure he succeeds entirely.
So the question is, how does one identify correctly, the tone of an occurrence of the imperative? Indeed: Is it even possible? Does the verb form [aorist in this case] play a role? Is it simply a question of context? I got to wonder whether the response of the woman gives a clue. She uses AITEW [PWS…EMOU…AITEIS] but this can take a soft [ask] or a stern [demand] meaning…the context of the conversation as a whole implies a request rather than a somewhat brusque command…
What would be the “normal” polite way of asking for something? I believe that in several modern European languages, a simple imperative carries with it no negative tonal connotations when asking for something…same for NT Greek?
I’d be interested in your views…
Paschal greetings to you all…
Steve
Stephen Baldwin [email protected]
Might be worthwhile to note that in Hebrew (if you consider this relevant), it is extremely common to use a simple command where we might use a more polite question form in English. It’s familiar, for sure, but it isn’t considered rude in the slightest. Was δός μοι a translation from Hebrew or Aramaic? Perhaps outside of B-Greek limitations, but it’s something to take into consideration. A Semitic underlying original dialogue could probably be assumed, if it causes problems in the Greek text itself.
Don’t need responses. I just wanted to throw that out there — off-topic though it may be.
Best regards, Jason Hare Rehovot, Israel ________________________________________ יהיו לרצון אמרי פי והגיון לבי לפניך, ה’ צורי וגואלי
Yesterday I sent my comment on this thread two times but it did not go through. I’ll try one more time and paste it here:
This is mainly a translation and cultural issue.
Granted that the text is a command, the translation point is one of politeness and cultural norms for making such a request.
When I first came to live in Africa for the purpose of helping to translate the Bible into a local language, I was surprised that people – even an inferior to a superior – routinely make commands like this one: “Give me water!” They never said: “Please.” There is no word for “Please!” in that language. Is there in Greek or Hebrew? I think the same applies here. Jesus said: “Give me something to drink.” It was not an affront and not impolite, but normal. (A similar question of politeness occurs in the well-known John 2:4).
Therefore, a literal translation like the NASB will carry over that cultural form into English, even though it violates English cultural norms, and therefore miscommunicates the tone of the original. NIV is a modified literal version. I am not sure whether “Will you give me a drink?” refers to water or other drinks. I think the CEV has the most polite command in English: “Would you please give me a drink of water?”
Iver Larsen
For all the effort undertaken to consult the Greek grammars, this really doesn’t seem to be a question about Greek grammar but about English translation. I wonder how the people over at B-Translation would deal with it. The problem with expressions of the imperative is that they are like euphemisms in that they are endeavors to soften the harshness of a command. I remember as a child just old enough to run chores for my betters being asked/told, “Wouldn’t you like to go fetch me a loaf of bread?” Having heard such polite commands often enough, I once replied, “No, I wouldn’t like to do it, but I’ll do it for your sake.”
We’ve had these discussions in this forum many times with regard to the third-person imperatives such as hAGIASQHTW TO ONOMA SOU, the question being raised along the lines of “Why are we asking for God’s permission for His name to be hallowed?” Well, of course we aren’t. It’s just quite simply a fact that “let” is used as an auxiliary in imperative expressions in English just as “lassen” in German, “laisser” in French, “sinere” in Latin, and ἀφίημι/ἀφίω [AFIHMI/AFIW] in ancient Greek.
Carl W. Conrad Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
Hi, Stephen,
One of my all time favorite imperatives is Archimedes:
δός μοι ποῦ στῶ και κινήσω τὴν γῆν. DOS MOI POU STW KAI KINHSW THN GHN.
He’s not literally asking for a place to stand. It’s really a future more-or-less vivid condition: “If I had a place to stand, I would move the world.” The imperative is not a request, polite or otherwise, but is a rhetorical devise to involve the hearer more vividly in the absurdity of the proposition. Wallace would call it the protastic pseudo-imperative.
We do it in English. “Give this guy fourteen runs and he is tough to beat.”
Mark L Φωσφορος
FWSFOROS MARKOS
________________________________ Sent: Wed, April 6, 2011 9:03:52 PM
Ladies and Gentlemen:
e.g. NASB: 7There came a woman of Samaria to draw water. Jesus said to her, “Give Me a drink.” NIV: 7 When a Samaritan woman came to draw water, Jesus said to her, “Will you give me a drink?” Greek: DOS MOI PEIN
Whilst the essence of the sentence remains the same, [Jesus asks for a drink], the way in which Jesus asks, transmits quite a different tone between the translations, at least to the English reader. The text is the same — there appear to be no variants. It is a straightforward aorist imperative.
None of my commentaries deal with this point. BDF (SS387) says that the imperative is not confined to commands but also requests/concessions Smyth (SS1835a) says something similar. Both fail to help me [much] in identifying the different flavours.
AT Robertson [yes Mr. FWS — he was promoted to Greek work due to the lack of tornados, and another desperate attempt to get my money’s worth from my purchase ;-)] page 947[c] is slightly more helpful but not a lot. I almost forgot Wallace (until about to SEND this email) who is the most useful and who acknowledges the problem. Page 488 he says how difficult it is to communicate tone in a written language. He gives the impression of trying to categorise ever so neatly the different uses — but I’m not sure he succeeds entirely.
So the question is, how does one identify correctly, the tone of an occurrence of the imperative? Indeed: Is it even possible? Does the verb form [aorist in this case] play a role? Is it simply a question of context? I got to wonder whether the response of the woman gives a clue. She uses AITEW [PWS…EMOU…AITEIS] but this can take a soft [ask] or a stern [demand] meaning…the context of the conversation as a whole implies a request rather than a somewhat brusque command…
What would be the “normal” polite way of asking for something? I believe that in several modern European languages, a simple imperative carries with it no negative tonal connotations when asking for something…same for NT Greek?
I’d be interested in your views…
Paschal greetings to you all…
Steve
Stephen Baldwin [email protected]
Might be worthwhile to note that in Hebrew (if you consider this relevant), it is extremely common to use a simple command where we might use a more polite question form in English. It’s familiar, for sure, but it isn’t considered rude in the slightest. Was δός μοι a translation from Hebrew or Aramaic? Perhaps outside of B-Greek limitations, but it’s something to take into consideration. A Semitic underlying original dialogue could probably be assumed, if it causes problems in the Greek text itself.
Don’t need responses. I just wanted to throw that out there — off-topic though it may be.
Best regards, Jason Hare Rehovot, Israel ________________________________________ יהיו לרצון אמרי פי והגיון לבי לפניך, ה’ צורי וגואלי
Yesterday I sent my comment on this thread two times but it did not go through. I’ll try one more time and paste it here:
This is mainly a translation and cultural issue.
Granted that the text is a command, the translation point is one of politeness and cultural norms for making such a request.
When I first came to live in Africa for the purpose of helping to translate the Bible into a local language, I was surprised that people – even an inferior to a superior – routinely make commands like this one: “Give me water!” They never said: “Please.” There is no word for “Please!” in that language. Is there in Greek or Hebrew? I think the same applies here. Jesus said: “Give me something to drink.” It was not an affront and not impolite, but normal. (A similar question of politeness occurs in the well-known John 2:4).
Therefore, a literal translation like the NASB will carry over that cultural form into English, even though it violates English cultural norms, and therefore miscommunicates the tone of the original. NIV is a modified literal version. I am not sure whether “Will you give me a drink?” refers to water or other drinks. I think the CEV has the most polite command in English: “Would you please give me a drink of water?”
Iver Larsen