Mark 15:2

Mark 15:2

An Exegetical Analysis of Σὺ Λέγεις in Mark 15:2: Textual, Lexical, and Prosodic Considerations An Exegetical Analysis of Σὺ Λέγεις in Mark 15:2: Textual, Lexical, and Prosodic Considerations This exegetical study of “Mark ch 15, v. 2” is based on a b-greek discussion from Tue Jun 9 01:43:29 EDT 1998. The initial contribution brought forth…

Mark 3:1

New Testament • Re: Two Questions about Mark 3:1-3
Wes Wood wrote:
Thanks for the responses the indirect question makes perfect sense. And the second part I don’t have a problem with either. I am meaning authorial foreshadowing inside the pericope, however. Nothing more than the author tipping his hand to what is going to happen in the narrative.

It’s a completely ordinary phrase as Timothy pointed out. It is easy to find its usage as simply “arise” in places like Mat 2:13, 9:19 26:46, Mark 10:49 14:42,. It clearly implies rising from a settled position, but nothing more. In fact, Luke 6:8 makes very clear what “εγειρε”/”εγειραι” in Mark 3:3 means.

Statistics: Posted by David Lim — June 17th, 2014, 7:18 am


Mark 8:5

New Testament • Re: Word order in Mark 8:5 Πόσους ἔχετε ἄρτους;
MAubrey wrote:

September 22nd, 2017, 12:52 pm

It would be more difficult to explain its position if it were moved forward.

The synoptic parallel provides one an opportunity to do that.

Matthew 15:34 wrote:Καὶ λέγει αὐτοῖς ὁ Ἰησοῦς, Πόσους ἄρτους ἔχετε;

Statistics: Posted by Stephen Hughes — September 22nd, 2017, 3:07 pm


Luke 19:7

New Testament • καταλῦσαι in Luke 19:7

I’ve been looking at the usage of καταλῦσαι in Luke 19:7 and am a bit stumped why it’s translated as “to be the guest of” (or a variation thereof) instead of to abolish, destroy, dissolve, etc.,

In light of the overall passage, it doesn’t make sense to use a derivative of abolish but I don’t understand either why it deviates so much from the other usages (i.e. Matthew 5:17, 61; Acts 5:39)

Statistics: Posted by Matt Lahey — June 19th, 2017, 6:47 pm


Mark 9:20

New Testament • Mark 9:20 – Who’s doing what

SBL:
καὶ ἤνεγκαν αὐτὸν πρὸς αὐτόν. καὶ ἰδὼν αὐτὸν τὸ πνεῦμα εὐθὺς συνεσπάραξεν αὐτόν, καὶ πεσὼν ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς ἐκυλίετο ἀφρίζων.

I can see two ways of reading this – either the boy is the one who ἰδὼν Jesus, or the spirit within him (so masc. part. is CAS).

Looking at the other participles in the verse, they clearly describe physical actions that the boy is doing (πεσὼν … ἀφρίζων), so my initial instinct is to read ἰδὼν as referring to the boy, and not the spirit. Would then account for the mention of τὸ πνεῦμα as giving a separate subject for the action of the verb συνεσπάραξεν.

A third option would be to not think of the two as separate entities, and so it’s not a case of “either/or” but “both”, as they’re rather intertwined at this moment.

I see a similar thing in Mark 9:26 – καὶ κράξας καὶ πολλὰ σπαράξας ἐξῆλθεν – the participles describe the physical actions of the boy, and the verb is the action that the spirit does (‘And after crying out and convulsing violently, it departed’).

Thoughts?

Statistics: Posted by S Walch — February 18th, 2017, 8:30 pm


Mark 4:29

New Testament • Re: Mark 4:29 παραδῷ allow, or ripen
cwconrad wrote:

Stephen Hughes wrote:

Mark 4:26-29 wrote:Καὶ ἔλεγεν, Οὕτως ἐστὶν ἡ βασιλεία τοῦ θεοῦ, ὡς ἐὰν ἄνθρωπος βάλῃ τὸν σπόρον ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς, καὶ καθεύδῃ καὶ ἐγείρηται νύκτα καὶ ἡμέραν, καὶ ὁ σπόρος βλαστάνῃ καὶ μηκύνηται ὡς οὐκ οἶδεν αὐτός. Αὐτομάτη γὰρ ἡ γῆ καρποφορεῖ, πρῶτον χόρτον, εἶτα στάχυν, εἶτα πλήρη σῖτον ἐν τῷ στάχυϊ. Ὅταν δὲ παραδῷ ὁ καρπός, εὐθέως ἀποστέλλει τὸ δρέπανον, ὅτι παρέστηκεν ὁ θερισμός.

In BDAG the meaning is παραδῷ “allow”, while the natural sense in the sequence if growth is ”ripen”.

Any thoughts either way?

παραδῷ is aorist; “ripen” is a process word. I’d think that idiomatic English would have to be “is ripe” or better, “is ready for harvest (has yielded its crop)”.

I think Carl’s gloss, “yield”, is the most helpful thing on this thread thus far. “When the crop yields…” It does fit nicely with the more popular usages of the verb.

Statistics: Posted by Jordan Day — May 10th, 2014, 12:15 pm


Luke 9:13

New Testament • εἰ μήτι with the subjunctive (Lk 9:13)

Could this be legitimately translated as a question? εἰ μήτι πορευθέντες ἡμεῖς ἀγοράσωμεν εἰς πάντα τὸν λαὸν τοῦτον βρώματα. Trans: Unless we go, can we buy food for all these people? Luke 9:13 Thanks, MMStatistics: Posted by monte.mackey — Decem…

Mark 8:4

Syntax Mark 8 4

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Mark 1:1

Mark 1:1

“`html An Exegetical Examination of the Genitive Phrase in Mark 1:1 body { font-family: ‘Times New Roman’, serif; line-height: 1.6; margin: 2em; } h1, h2, h3 { color: #2C3E50; margin-top: 1.5em; margin-bottom: 0.5em; } h2 { font-size: 1.8em; border-bottom: 1px solid #ccc; padding-bottom: 0.3em; } h3 { font-size: 1.4em; } p { margin-bottom: 1em; text-align:…

Mark 16:9

Mark 16:9

An Exegetical Examination of Mark 16:9: Syntactic Modifiers and Textual Considerations within the Longer Ending of Mark body { font-family: Georgia, serif; line-height: 1.6; max-width: 900px; margin: 2em auto; padding: 0 1em; } h2, h3 { color: #2c3e50; border-bottom: 1px solid #ccc; padding-bottom: 0.3em; margin-top: 2em; } blockquote { background: #f9f9f9; border-left: 5px solid #ccc;…