I am glad that it – which is uncommon – is really the text that is the problem and not the interpreter :-)I will try to joggle a bit more. And does not help that both the content and the grammar is obscure!Statistics: Posted by Hortensius — Mon Oct 21…
The important thing here—and hopefully this will solve your problem—is that εαν is just an alternative spelling of αν, and αν with subjunctive (επιθῶ) makes an indefinite clause. ᾧ ἐὰν ἐπιθῶ τὰς χεῖρας is literally “on whomever I put the hands”, i.e. …
Thanks.That means that for the time being the NT is the only witness for the use of δηναριον in Jesus-Lifetime.Statistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Sun Dec 24, 2023 7:07 am
Thank you both for this thread, which was an eye-opener for me, too, for those exact reasons that @thestuffedowl explains. An accusative as the subject of a verb? Well, well. Whatever next!Statistics: Posted by BrianB — Tue Jul 16, 2024 4:58 pm
1. Μακάριος ἀνήρ, ὃς οὐκ ἐπορεύθη ἐν βουλῇ ἀσεβῶν καὶ ἐν ὁδῷ ἁμαρτωλῶν οὐκ ἔστη καὶ ἐπὶ καθέδραν λοιμῶν οὐκ ἐκάθισεν, 2. ἀλλ’ ἢ ἐν τῷ νόμῳ κυρίου τὸ θέλημα αὐτοῦ, καὶ ἐν τῷ νόμῳ αὐτοῦ μελετήσει ἡμέρας καὶ νυκτός. 3. καὶ ἔσται ὡς τὸ ξύλον τὸ πεφυτευμέν…
dear Mitch,“ I *still* can’t remember all of it “I know very well how that feels! I had my last Greek-Lessons are 40 years ago. Even then I was horrible bad in Greek. Probably my old Greek-Teacher would be very astonished (and happy) to see, that now …
Hmm, I’m not sure it’s reported speech as I think maybe φησὶν here is intentional i.e. “The transgressor thinks (resolves) to sin” as per LSJ II b. And I was thinking that αὐτοῦ in ἐνώπιον αὐτοῦ is “self” here, so ἐδόλωσεν ἐνώπιον αὐτοῦ is “he disguis…
The INTF and the IGNTP both have a lot of manuscript-transcriptions, but it is not possible on their Websites to search a specific reading in all transcriptions.So I collected all available Transcripts of both institutes and built a kind of raw databa…
I came across another similar word, the ἀκρόπολις of Carthage was called Βύρσα, Appian, Punic Wars 1 The Phoenicians, cutting the hide round and round in one very narrow strip, enclosed the place where the citadel of Carthage now stands, which from th…
“With regard to φθόνος” hardly fits. For πρὸς φθόνον, of course, we have LSJ.πρός.C.I.7 “πρός c.acc. freq. periphr. for Adv. …” Rather then context precluding it, God’s jealousy is in fact a frequent topic in scripture. Verse 4, with the accusation …
No wonder you’re confused. It’s completely unintelligible as it stands, and the Greek must be very wrong. The best I can make of it is τῶν (not τὸν) πεπηγμένων (not -νον) ἐξ ἀνεδράστων(?) ἀναγωγὴ(?) βιαία(?) καὶ ἁρμονία σοφίας. That will mean somethin…
Thanks for that. I need to have more thinking. Would you suggest that it could mean “force” the way some translations render it?I should clarify my argument; I’m not suggesting it is “more accurate” translation. It is prophetic language after all. I…
Hi Mitch, Yes CGCG is an outstanding resource (though it came too late for me). You have a nice example of ὁποῖος in Paul’s autobiographical speech to Agrippa in Acts 26, which I always remember because it’s so egomaniacal: εὐξαίμην ἂν … πάντας τοὺς ἀ…
I thought that this might just be something to do with the poetry here, and looked at how ἀλλ’ ἤ gets used elsewhere. A quick scan through Genesis and the early books of the LXX shows it mostly being used in the “standard” way, to mean “unless” or “ex…
σὺ εἶ ὁ υἱός μου ὁ ἀγαπητός, ἐν σοὶ εὐδόκησα.The aorist here is usually translated as a present i.e. “I am well-pleased” and I’m trying to understand why. Chapter 33 of CGCG says that aorist indicative in narrative texts is used to present the occurre…
Good question. You’ve nearly got it. αυτόν is not the object but the subject of γεννῆσαι. μετὰ τὸ γεννῆσαι αὐτὸν τὸν Σάλα is a prepositional phrase meaning “after he (αυτὸν) begot Sala.” τὸ is the neuter article, here accusative, governed by μετά “aft…
I am so confused about this sentence in Acts of John 98: καὶ τὸν πεπηγμένον ἐξ ἀνεδράστων ἀνάγγη βιάβα καὶ ἁρμονία σοφίας·so, ἀνάγγη, is the verb (aor.pass.ind.) and βιάβα might be predicative to the implicit subject of ἀνάγγη. What I don’t get is τὸν…
In the LXX/Septuaginta one finds (examples just for Genesis and Exodus) a: [ανα μεσον + Gen.Sg.] (Ex. 26:10) b: [ανα μεσον + Gen.Pl.] ; (Ex. 22:10; 25:22; 26:28; 28:33; 36:32;Gen. 15:17; 31:37; 31:53; 42:23; 49:14c: [ανα μεσον + Gen. + Gen.] (Ex. 11:7…
Thanks Joel. Interesting that the emphatic negative οὐχί is in both the 1 Ki and Lk examples (though not in Ps 1:4).Statistics: Posted by Mitch — Sat May 18, 2024 3:36 pm
We mustn’t confuse the issues. There’s the εαν/αν spelling, and there’s the question of the semantics in various syntactic contexts. And there’s the question of textual corruption and “correction.” And the enquiry should not be limited to the NT, with…